Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-444
Exam Name: IP Telephony Exam (CIPT)
Questions and Answers:65Q&A
Update Time:2009-8-21
Price:$79.00
"CCVP IP Communications ", also known as 642-444 exam, is a Cisco certification.Preparing for the 642-444 exam? Searching 642-444 Test Questions, 642-444 Practice Exam, 642-444 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 65 Q&A to your 642-444 exam preparation. In the 642-444 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCVP IP Communications helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 642-444 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for CCVP IP Communications 642-444 exam (IP Telephony Exam (CIPT)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The CCVP IP Communications exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCVP IP Communications certification. The CCVP IP Communications (642-444) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
FREE DEMO Download:http://exam.test4actual.com/642-444.pdf
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2009年8月22日星期六
2009年8月20日星期四
Cisco Composite Exam:642-891 exam
"CCNP CCDP ", also known as 642-891 exam, is a Cisco certification.
Preparing for the 642-891 exam? Searching 642-891 Test Questions, 642-891 Practice Exam, 642-891 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 334 Q&A to your 642-891 exam preparation. In the 642-891 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCNP CCDP helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 642-891 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for CCNP CCDP 642-891 exam (Composite Exam). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The CCNP CCDP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP CCDP certification. The CCNP CCDP (642-891) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
FREE DEMO Download here:http://exam.test4actual.com/642-891.pdf
http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/642-891.html
http://test4actual.blogsome.com
Preparing for the 642-891 exam? Searching 642-891 Test Questions, 642-891 Practice Exam, 642-891 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 334 Q&A to your 642-891 exam preparation. In the 642-891 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCNP CCDP helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 642-891 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for CCNP CCDP 642-891 exam (Composite Exam). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The CCNP CCDP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP CCDP certification. The CCNP CCDP (642-891) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
FREE DEMO Download here:http://exam.test4actual.com/642-891.pdf
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Lifecycle Services Advanced IP Communications(LSAIPC):646-228 exam
"APE for Validating Knowledge ", also known as 646-228 exam, is a Cisco certification.
Preparing for the 646-228 exam? Searching 646-228 Test Questions, 646-228 Practice Exam, 646-228 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 55 Q&A to your 646-228 exam preparation. In the 646-228 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in APE for Validating Knowledge helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 646-228 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for APE for Validating Knowledge 646-228 exam (Lifecycle Services Advanced IP Communications(LSAIPC)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The APE for Validating Knowledge exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate APE for Validating Knowledge certification. The APE for Validating Knowledge (646-228) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
FREE DEMO Download here:http://exam.test4actual.com/646-228.pdf
http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/646-228.html
http://test4actual.blogsome.com
Preparing for the 646-228 exam? Searching 646-228 Test Questions, 646-228 Practice Exam, 646-228 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 55 Q&A to your 646-228 exam preparation. In the 646-228 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in APE for Validating Knowledge helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 646-228 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for APE for Validating Knowledge 646-228 exam (Lifecycle Services Advanced IP Communications(LSAIPC)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The APE for Validating Knowledge exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate APE for Validating Knowledge certification. The APE for Validating Knowledge (646-228) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
FREE DEMO Download here:http://exam.test4actual.com/646-228.pdf
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http://test4actual.blogsome.com
2009年8月19日星期三
IP Communications Express Account Manager (IPCXAM):646-222 exam
"Cisco Others Certification ", also known as 646-222 exam, is a Cisco certification.Preparing for the 646-222 exam? Searching 646-222 Test Questions, 646-222 Practice Exam, 646-222 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 46 Q&A to your 646-222 exam preparation. In the 646-222 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Cisco Others Certification helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 646-222 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Cisco Others Certification 646-222 exam (IP Communications Express Account Manager (IPCXAM)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The Cisco Others Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Cisco Others Certification certification. The Cisco Others Certification (646-222) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
FREE DEMO:
1.An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IPCommunications solution. This customer manages a large enterprise campus and three smallbranch offices. Which Cisco CallManager Express feature should the account manager discusswith this customer?
A.integrated IP telephony services
B.robust PSTN interfaces
C.interoperability between Cisco CallManager and Cisco CallManager Express
D.remote maintenance
Correct:C
2.Cisco Unity Express adds which three features to the Cisco IP Communications Expresssolution? (Choose three.)
A.data encryption
B.auto attendant
C.voice mail
D.call processing
E.group messaging
F.call routing
Correct:B C F
3.A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France,and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating costeffectivevoice mail and auto attendant,and has asked for your recommendation. What application would best meet the needs of thecustomer?A.Cisco Unity Express
B.Cisco Unity
C.customized XML applications
D.Cisco CallManager
Correct:A
4.You require an easytouse,webenabledtool to demonstrate to a prospective customer thebenefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings.Which tool should you use?
A.Cisco ROI analysis
B.Cisco CNIC
C.business case from the industry of the prospect
D.customized hurdle rate analysis
Correct:B
5.The operations manager of a potential customer is concerned about implementing a VoIPsolution because of the possibility of interoperability issues with existing equipment. Whichdifferentiator would be most appropriate to position a Cisco IP Communications solution againstcompetitors?A.An IPenabledPBX does not offer "five nines" availability.
A Cisco IP Communications solution mustintegrate with existing legacy equipment that has 99.999 percent availability.
B.A Cisco IP Communications solution offers investment protection for a large installed base, as well asretention of legacy equipment.Test4actual Information Co., Ltd.All rights reserved.3
C.Proprietary software and IP phones are often used to enable an existing PBX system for IPbasedcommunications, locking the customer into using specific products indefinitely. With a Cisco solution,PBXenableddevices can be used on the network.
D.Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure the tightintegration of all equipment and applications, enabling customers to migrate slowly to completeconvergence and retain legacy equipment and existing applications.
Correct:D
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Free 646-222 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Cisco Others Certification 646-222 exam (IP Communications Express Account Manager (IPCXAM)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The Cisco Others Certification exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Cisco Others Certification certification. The Cisco Others Certification (646-222) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
FREE DEMO:
1.An account manager is meeting with a customer who is interested in a Cisco IPCommunications solution. This customer manages a large enterprise campus and three smallbranch offices. Which Cisco CallManager Express feature should the account manager discusswith this customer?
A.integrated IP telephony services
B.robust PSTN interfaces
C.interoperability between Cisco CallManager and Cisco CallManager Express
D.remote maintenance
Correct:C
2.Cisco Unity Express adds which three features to the Cisco IP Communications Expresssolution? (Choose three.)
A.data encryption
B.auto attendant
C.voice mail
D.call processing
E.group messaging
F.call routing
Correct:B C F
3.A potential customer has several global offices, including one in North America, two in France,and one in Germany. This prospect is investigating costeffectivevoice mail and auto attendant,and has asked for your recommendation. What application would best meet the needs of thecustomer?A.Cisco Unity Express
B.Cisco Unity
C.customized XML applications
D.Cisco CallManager
Correct:A
4.You require an easytouse,webenabledtool to demonstrate to a prospective customer thebenefits of a converged network in terms of productivity enhancements and real estate savings.Which tool should you use?
A.Cisco ROI analysis
B.Cisco CNIC
C.business case from the industry of the prospect
D.customized hurdle rate analysis
Correct:B
5.The operations manager of a potential customer is concerned about implementing a VoIPsolution because of the possibility of interoperability issues with existing equipment. Whichdifferentiator would be most appropriate to position a Cisco IP Communications solution againstcompetitors?A.An IPenabledPBX does not offer "five nines" availability.
A Cisco IP Communications solution mustintegrate with existing legacy equipment that has 99.999 percent availability.
B.A Cisco IP Communications solution offers investment protection for a large installed base, as well asretention of legacy equipment.Test4actual Information Co., Ltd.All rights reserved.3
C.Proprietary software and IP phones are often used to enable an existing PBX system for IPbasedcommunications, locking the customer into using specific products indefinitely. With a Cisco solution,PBXenableddevices can be used on the network.
D.Cisco IP Communications solutions are based on tested and verified designs that ensure the tightintegration of all equipment and applications, enabling customers to migrate slowly to completeconvergence and retain legacy equipment and existing applications.
Correct:D
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Cisco Sales Expert(CSE):646-203 exam
"Sales Expert ", also known as 646-203 exam, is a Cisco certification.
Preparing for the 646-203 exam? Searching 646-203 Test Questions, 646-203 Practice Exam, 646-203 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 74 Q&A to your 646-203 exam preparation. In the 646-203 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Sales Expert helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 646-203 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Sales Expert 646-203 exam (Cisco Sales Expert(CSE)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The Sales Expert exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Sales Expert certification. The Sales Expert (646-203) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/646-203.html
http://test4actual.blogsome.com
Preparing for the 646-203 exam? Searching 646-203 Test Questions, 646-203 Practice Exam, 646-203 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 74 Q&A to your 646-203 exam preparation. In the 646-203 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Sales Expert helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 646-203 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for Sales Expert 646-203 exam (Cisco Sales Expert(CSE)). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The Sales Expert exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Sales Expert certification. The Sales Expert (646-203) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
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http://www.test4actual.com/646-203.html
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CCIE Service Provider Dial:350-025 exam
"CCIE ", also known as 350-025 exam, is a Cisco certification.
Preparing for the 350-025 exam? Searching 350-025 Test Questions, 350-025 Practice Exam, 350-025 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 399 Q&A to your 350-025 exam preparation. In the 350-025 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCIE helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 350-025 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for CCIE 350-025 exam (CCIE Service Provider Dial). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The CCIE exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCIE certification. The CCIE (350-025) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
http://www.test4actual.com
http://www.test4actual.com/350-025.html
http://test4actual.blogsome.com
Preparing for the 350-025 exam? Searching 350-025 Test Questions, 350-025 Practice Exam, 350-025 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 399 Q&A to your 350-025 exam preparation. In the 350-025 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCIE helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Free 350-025 Demo Download
Test4actual offers free demo for CCIE 350-025 exam (CCIE Service Provider Dial). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it. We are the only one site can offer demo for almost all products.
Exam Details
The CCIE exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCIE certification. The CCIE (350-025) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
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2009年8月18日星期二
some practice about Test4actual updated Oracle 1z0-218 exam
Here are some practice about Oracle 1z0-218 exam which are latest released by Test4actual,it provides a lot of IT certification exams,I hope they will help you pass your test.
1. Which default value do the Job Code table and Location table have in common?
A. Salary Plan
B. Work Period
C. Tax Location
D. Standard Hours
E. Establishment ID
Answer:A
2. Which three statements describe the benefits of using tableset sharing in the PeopleSoft system? (Choose three.)
A. Tableset sharing uses SetID to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
B. Tableset sharing allows organizations to track and report business information.
C. Tableset sharing enables organizations to group rows of data within a control table by using a high-level key called a SetID.
D. Tableset sharing uses Department ID in conjunction with department security tree to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
E. Tableset sharing enables organizations to utilize indexing capabilities on mapped records for faster search results on employee data.
F. Tableset sharing enables organizations to share information instead of entering it multiple times, when large portions of data are the same for various business units.
Answer:ACF
3. On the Job Data Work Location tab for a new hire, Company is a required field.You can default Company from the _____ table.
A. Location
B. Job Code
C. Position Data
D. Business UnitE. Holiday Schedule
Answer: C
4. Your client is implementing PeopleSoft HRMS system with Payroll Interface. The client is to start configuring Pay Group table.What table value should exist in the system before configuring Pay Groups?
A. Location
B. Company
C. Salary Plan
D. Salary Step
E. Salary Grade
F. Additional Pay
Answer: B
5. Which PeopleSoft table do you use to identify a group of employees who share common pay characteristics?
A. Job Code Table
B. Company Table
C. Pay Group Table
D. Salary Plan Table
E. Salary Grade Tables
F. Comp Rate Code Table
Answer: C
http://www.test4actual.com/1Z0-218.html
6. You are at your client site working on PeopleSoft HRMS implementation. One of your tasks is to add systemwide defaults in order to save time when a user is entering information in transaction tables.Identify which field is NOT a default option in the Org Default by Permission List component.
A. SetID
B. Country
C. Company
D. To Currency
E. Business Unit
F. Compensation Frequency
Answer: F
7. Your organization has decided to use a department security tree for Row-Level security in PeopleSoft HRMS system.You decided to use the XYZ permission list to secure data using the Security by Department Tree component.Which step do you need to perform to ensure that Row-Level security is enforced?
A. Add the XYZ permission list to User Profile.
B. Add the XYZ permission list to Security Set.
C. Add the XYZ permission list to Tree Manager.
D. Add the XYZ permission list to Configuration Manager.
E. Add the XYZ permission list to a role and then assign that role to a user.
Answer:A
8. Using a Permission List associated with a user and identifying security sets and access types in the Security by Permission List component of PeopleSoft are known as _____.
A. Role-based data permission security
B. Tree-based data permission security
C. Group-based data permission security
D. Country-based data permission security
E. PeopleCode-based data permission security
Answer:A
9. Your organization has decided to implement row-level security. You suggested securing data by associating the company with people having jobs. This method of securing data is known as _____.
A. Access Type / Role
B. Permission List / Role
C. Security set / Access Type
D. Security set / Permission List
E. Permission List / User Profile
F. Access Type / Permission List
Answer: C
10. Adam is entering new hire information in the PeopleSoft system. Adam enters the new hire personal information and creates the organizational relationship of the new hire as EMPLOYEE. After Adam establishes the new hire's relationship with the organization, the system opens the JOB DATA page for Adam to enter the new hires job-related information.Adam decides to complete the new hires job-related information after his lunch break and cancels out of the JOB DATA page.What must be Adam's approach to successfully complete the new hire's job-related information in the PeopleSoft system after his break?
A. Enter job-related information using Job Data component.
B. Complete both personal information and job information at the same time.
C. Enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance component.
D. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using Job Data component.
E. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instancecomponent.
Answer: C
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1. Which default value do the Job Code table and Location table have in common?
A. Salary Plan
B. Work Period
C. Tax Location
D. Standard Hours
E. Establishment ID
Answer:A
2. Which three statements describe the benefits of using tableset sharing in the PeopleSoft system? (Choose three.)
A. Tableset sharing uses SetID to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
B. Tableset sharing allows organizations to track and report business information.
C. Tableset sharing enables organizations to group rows of data within a control table by using a high-level key called a SetID.
D. Tableset sharing uses Department ID in conjunction with department security tree to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
E. Tableset sharing enables organizations to utilize indexing capabilities on mapped records for faster search results on employee data.
F. Tableset sharing enables organizations to share information instead of entering it multiple times, when large portions of data are the same for various business units.
Answer:ACF
3. On the Job Data Work Location tab for a new hire, Company is a required field.You can default Company from the _____ table.
A. Location
B. Job Code
C. Position Data
D. Business UnitE. Holiday Schedule
Answer: C
4. Your client is implementing PeopleSoft HRMS system with Payroll Interface. The client is to start configuring Pay Group table.What table value should exist in the system before configuring Pay Groups?
A. Location
B. Company
C. Salary Plan
D. Salary Step
E. Salary Grade
F. Additional Pay
Answer: B
5. Which PeopleSoft table do you use to identify a group of employees who share common pay characteristics?
A. Job Code Table
B. Company Table
C. Pay Group Table
D. Salary Plan Table
E. Salary Grade Tables
F. Comp Rate Code Table
Answer: C
http://www.test4actual.com/1Z0-218.html
6. You are at your client site working on PeopleSoft HRMS implementation. One of your tasks is to add systemwide defaults in order to save time when a user is entering information in transaction tables.Identify which field is NOT a default option in the Org Default by Permission List component.
A. SetID
B. Country
C. Company
D. To Currency
E. Business Unit
F. Compensation Frequency
Answer: F
7. Your organization has decided to use a department security tree for Row-Level security in PeopleSoft HRMS system.You decided to use the XYZ permission list to secure data using the Security by Department Tree component.Which step do you need to perform to ensure that Row-Level security is enforced?
A. Add the XYZ permission list to User Profile.
B. Add the XYZ permission list to Security Set.
C. Add the XYZ permission list to Tree Manager.
D. Add the XYZ permission list to Configuration Manager.
E. Add the XYZ permission list to a role and then assign that role to a user.
Answer:A
8. Using a Permission List associated with a user and identifying security sets and access types in the Security by Permission List component of PeopleSoft are known as _____.
A. Role-based data permission security
B. Tree-based data permission security
C. Group-based data permission security
D. Country-based data permission security
E. PeopleCode-based data permission security
Answer:A
9. Your organization has decided to implement row-level security. You suggested securing data by associating the company with people having jobs. This method of securing data is known as _____.
A. Access Type / Role
B. Permission List / Role
C. Security set / Access Type
D. Security set / Permission List
E. Permission List / User Profile
F. Access Type / Permission List
Answer: C
10. Adam is entering new hire information in the PeopleSoft system. Adam enters the new hire personal information and creates the organizational relationship of the new hire as EMPLOYEE. After Adam establishes the new hire's relationship with the organization, the system opens the JOB DATA page for Adam to enter the new hires job-related information.Adam decides to complete the new hires job-related information after his lunch break and cancels out of the JOB DATA page.What must be Adam's approach to successfully complete the new hire's job-related information in the PeopleSoft system after his break?
A. Enter job-related information using Job Data component.
B. Complete both personal information and job information at the same time.
C. Enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance component.
D. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using Job Data component.
E. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instancecomponent.
Answer: C
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http://www.test4actual.com/1Z0-218.html
http://test4actual.blogsome.com
2009年8月17日星期一
some practice about Test4actual updated Microsoft 83-640 exam
Here are some practice about Microsoft 83-640 exam which are latest released by Test4actual,it provides a lot of IT certification exams,I hope they will help you pass your test.
1. Your company, Contoso, Ltd., has a main office and a branch office. The offices are connected by a WAN link. Contoso has an Active Directory forest that contains a single domain named ad.contoso.com.The ad.contoso.com domain contains one domain controller named DC1 that is located in the main office. DC1 is configured as a DNS server for the ad.contoso.com DNS zone. This zone is configured as a standard primary zone.You install a new domain controller named DC2 in the branch office. You install DNS on DC2.You need to ensure that the DNS service can update records and resolve DNS queries in the event that a WAN link fails.What should you do?A. Create a new stub zone named ad.contoso.com on DC2.
B. Configure the DNS server on DC2 to forward requests to DC1.
C. Create a new standard secondary zone named ad.contoso.com on DC2.
D. Convert the ad.contoso.com zone on DC1 to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
Answer: D
2. Your company has a DNS server that has 10 Active Directory–integrated zones.You need to provide copies of the zone files of the DNS server to the security department. What should you do?
A. Run the dnscmd /ZoneInfo command.
B. Run the ipconfig /registerdns command.
C. Run the dnscmd /ZoneExport command.
D. Run the ntdsutil > Partition Management > List commands.
Answer: C
3. Your company has a single Active Directory domain named intranet.adatum.com. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and the DNS server role.All computers, including non-domain members, dynamically register their DNS records.You need to configure the intranet.adatum.com zone to allow only domain members to dynamically register DNS records.What should you do?
A. Set dynamic updates to Secure Only.
B. Enable zone transfers to Name Servers.
C. Remove the Authenticated Users group.
D. Deny the Everyone group the Create All Child Objects permission.
Answer: A
4. Your company has a main office and a branch office. The company has a single-domain Active Directory forest.The main office has two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2008. The branch office has a Windows Server 2008 read-only domain controller (RODC) named DC3.All domain controllers hold the DNS Server role and are configured as Active Directory-integrated zones. The DNS zones only allow secure updates.You need to enable dynamic DNS updates on DC3. What should you do?
A. Run the Ntdsutil.exe > DS Behavior commands on DC3.
B. Run the Dnscmd.exe /ZoneResetType command on DC3.
C. Reinstall Active Directory Domain Services on DC3 as a writable domain controller.
D. Create a custom application directory partition on DC1. Configure the partition to store Active Directory-integrated zones.
Answer: C
5. You network consists of an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2008. All domain controllers are configured as DNS servers. The contoso.com DNS zone is stored in the ForestDnsZones Active Directory application partition.You have a member server that contains a standard primary DNS zone for dev.contoso.com. You need to ensure that all domain controllers can resolve names for dev.contoso.com.What should you do?A.Create a NS record in the contoso.com zone.
B.Create a delegation in the contoso.com zone.
C.Create a standard secondary zone on a Global Catalog server.
D.Modify the properties of the SOA record in the contoso.com zone.
Answer: B
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6. Your network consists of an Active Directory forest that contains one domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers. You have two Active Directory-integrated zones: contoso.com and nwtraders.com.You need to ensure a user is able to modify records in the contoso.com zone. You must prevent the user from modifying the SOA record in the nwtraders.com zone.What should you do?
A. From the DNS Manager console, modify the permissions of the contoso.com zone.
B. From the DNS Manager console, modify the permissions of the nwtraders.com zone.
C. From the Active Directory Users and Computers console, run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. From the Active Directory Users and Computers console, modify the permissions of the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).
Answer: A
7. Your network consists of an Active Directory forest that contains one domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers. You have an Active Directory-integrated zone. You have two Active Directory sites. Each site contains five domain controllers.You add a new NS record to the zone.You need to ensure that all domain controllers immediately receive the new NS record. What should you do?
A. From the DNS Manager console, reload the zone.
B. From the Services snap-in, restart the DNS Server service.
C. From the command prompt, run repadmin /syncall.
D. From the DNS Manager console, increase the version number of the SOA record.
Answer: C
8. You have a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2008. DC1 is configured as a DNS Server for contoso.com.You install the DNS Server role on a member server named Server1 and then you create a standard secondary zone for contoso.com. You configure DC1 as the master server for the zone.You need to ensure that Server1 receives zone updates from DC1. What should you do?
A. On Server1, add a conditional forwarder.
B. On DC1, modify the permissions of contoso.com zone.
C. On DC1, modify the zone transfer settings for the contoso.com zone.
D. Add the Server1 computer account to the DNSUpdateProxy group.
Answer: C
9. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers. A domain controller named DC1 has a standard primary zone for contoso.com. A domain controller named DC2 has a standard secondary zone for contoso.com.You need to ensure that the replication of the contoso.com zone is encrypted. You must not lose any zone data.What should you do?
A. On both servers, modify the interface that the DNS server listens on.
B. Convert the primary zone into an Active Directory-integrated zone. Delete the secondary zone.
C. Convert the primary zone into an Active Directory-integrated stub zone. Delete the secondary zone.
D. Configure the zone transfer settings of the standard primary zone. Modify the Master Servers lists on the secondary zone.
Answer: B
10. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 domain controllers. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers.You plan to create a new Active Directory-integrated zone.You need to ensure that the new zone is only replicated to four of your domain controllers. What should you do first?
A. Create a new delegation in the ForestDnsZones application directory partition.
B. Create a new delegation in the DomainDnsZones application directory partition.
C. From the command prompt, run dnscmd and specify the /enlistdirectorypartition parameter.
D. From the command prompt, run dnscmd and specify the /createdirectorypartition parameter.
Answer: D
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1. Your company, Contoso, Ltd., has a main office and a branch office. The offices are connected by a WAN link. Contoso has an Active Directory forest that contains a single domain named ad.contoso.com.The ad.contoso.com domain contains one domain controller named DC1 that is located in the main office. DC1 is configured as a DNS server for the ad.contoso.com DNS zone. This zone is configured as a standard primary zone.You install a new domain controller named DC2 in the branch office. You install DNS on DC2.You need to ensure that the DNS service can update records and resolve DNS queries in the event that a WAN link fails.What should you do?A. Create a new stub zone named ad.contoso.com on DC2.
B. Configure the DNS server on DC2 to forward requests to DC1.
C. Create a new standard secondary zone named ad.contoso.com on DC2.
D. Convert the ad.contoso.com zone on DC1 to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
Answer: D
2. Your company has a DNS server that has 10 Active Directory–integrated zones.You need to provide copies of the zone files of the DNS server to the security department. What should you do?
A. Run the dnscmd /ZoneInfo command.
B. Run the ipconfig /registerdns command.
C. Run the dnscmd /ZoneExport command.
D. Run the ntdsutil > Partition Management > List commands.
Answer: C
3. Your company has a single Active Directory domain named intranet.adatum.com. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and the DNS server role.All computers, including non-domain members, dynamically register their DNS records.You need to configure the intranet.adatum.com zone to allow only domain members to dynamically register DNS records.What should you do?
A. Set dynamic updates to Secure Only.
B. Enable zone transfers to Name Servers.
C. Remove the Authenticated Users group.
D. Deny the Everyone group the Create All Child Objects permission.
Answer: A
4. Your company has a main office and a branch office. The company has a single-domain Active Directory forest.The main office has two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2 that run Windows Server 2008. The branch office has a Windows Server 2008 read-only domain controller (RODC) named DC3.All domain controllers hold the DNS Server role and are configured as Active Directory-integrated zones. The DNS zones only allow secure updates.You need to enable dynamic DNS updates on DC3. What should you do?
A. Run the Ntdsutil.exe > DS Behavior commands on DC3.
B. Run the Dnscmd.exe /ZoneResetType command on DC3.
C. Reinstall Active Directory Domain Services on DC3 as a writable domain controller.
D. Create a custom application directory partition on DC1. Configure the partition to store Active Directory-integrated zones.
Answer: C
5. You network consists of an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2008. All domain controllers are configured as DNS servers. The contoso.com DNS zone is stored in the ForestDnsZones Active Directory application partition.You have a member server that contains a standard primary DNS zone for dev.contoso.com. You need to ensure that all domain controllers can resolve names for dev.contoso.com.What should you do?A.Create a NS record in the contoso.com zone.
B.Create a delegation in the contoso.com zone.
C.Create a standard secondary zone on a Global Catalog server.
D.Modify the properties of the SOA record in the contoso.com zone.
Answer: B
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6. Your network consists of an Active Directory forest that contains one domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers. You have two Active Directory-integrated zones: contoso.com and nwtraders.com.You need to ensure a user is able to modify records in the contoso.com zone. You must prevent the user from modifying the SOA record in the nwtraders.com zone.What should you do?
A. From the DNS Manager console, modify the permissions of the contoso.com zone.
B. From the DNS Manager console, modify the permissions of the nwtraders.com zone.
C. From the Active Directory Users and Computers console, run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. From the Active Directory Users and Computers console, modify the permissions of the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).
Answer: A
7. Your network consists of an Active Directory forest that contains one domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers. You have an Active Directory-integrated zone. You have two Active Directory sites. Each site contains five domain controllers.You add a new NS record to the zone.You need to ensure that all domain controllers immediately receive the new NS record. What should you do?
A. From the DNS Manager console, reload the zone.
B. From the Services snap-in, restart the DNS Server service.
C. From the command prompt, run repadmin /syncall.
D. From the DNS Manager console, increase the version number of the SOA record.
Answer: C
8. You have a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2008. DC1 is configured as a DNS Server for contoso.com.You install the DNS Server role on a member server named Server1 and then you create a standard secondary zone for contoso.com. You configure DC1 as the master server for the zone.You need to ensure that Server1 receives zone updates from DC1. What should you do?
A. On Server1, add a conditional forwarder.
B. On DC1, modify the permissions of contoso.com zone.
C. On DC1, modify the zone transfer settings for the contoso.com zone.
D. Add the Server1 computer account to the DNSUpdateProxy group.
Answer: C
9. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers. A domain controller named DC1 has a standard primary zone for contoso.com. A domain controller named DC2 has a standard secondary zone for contoso.com.You need to ensure that the replication of the contoso.com zone is encrypted. You must not lose any zone data.What should you do?
A. On both servers, modify the interface that the DNS server listens on.
B. Convert the primary zone into an Active Directory-integrated zone. Delete the secondary zone.
C. Convert the primary zone into an Active Directory-integrated stub zone. Delete the secondary zone.
D. Configure the zone transfer settings of the standard primary zone. Modify the Master Servers lists on the secondary zone.
Answer: B
10. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains 10 domain controllers. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 and are configured as DNS servers.You plan to create a new Active Directory-integrated zone.You need to ensure that the new zone is only replicated to four of your domain controllers. What should you do first?
A. Create a new delegation in the ForestDnsZones application directory partition.
B. Create a new delegation in the DomainDnsZones application directory partition.
C. From the command prompt, run dnscmd and specify the /enlistdirectorypartition parameter.
D. From the command prompt, run dnscmd and specify the /createdirectorypartition parameter.
Answer: D
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2009年8月15日星期六
Test4actual sun 310-200 exam updated
Hello,everyone,Test4actual is the first to update the sun 310-200 exam,here are some practice about sun 310-200 exam,we hope we can help you pass your test.
1. You are installing Solaris 10 OS on a SPARC-based system with a graphical monitor and keyboard, but the installation starts up in CLI mode. Assuming you have typed the correct installation command, what is the cause?
A. You used the DVD.
B. The monitor is monochrome.
C. Solaris OS is a text-only installation.
D. The system has less than 384 megabytes of RAM.
E. The system has less than 128 megabytes of RAM.
Answer: E
2. Most files in the Solaris OS make use of data blocks. Which two do NOT use data blocks for storage? (Choose two.)
A. Hard link
B. Directory
C. Device file
D. Symbolic link
Answer: AC
3. You have installed a package called SUNWvts onto your system. Where is the information about every file and directory contained in this package stored?
A. /var/sadm/messages
B. In your home directory.
C. /var/spool/SUNWvts
D. /var/sadm/install/contentsE. /var/adm/installed/contentsF. /etc/default/installed/packages/information
Answer: D
4. You just installed Solaris on your x86 server and you cannot get your system to boot to the Solaris 10 OS. When rebooting, you get three options in the GRUB menu:SolarisSolaris Serial Console ttyaSolaris Serial Console ttybYou select Solaris from the menu and another menu appears:
1. Solaris Interactive
2. Custom JumpStart
3. Solaris Interactive Text (Desktop Session)
4. Solaris Interactive Text (Console Session)
5. Apply driver update6. Single User ShellYou check the BIOS settings on the server and the boot device priority is as follows:First Boot Device [FLOPPY]Second boot device [CDROM]Third Boot Device [HARD DISK]Fourth Boot Device [LAN]Which option can you use to fix the problem?
A. The boot device priority is fine, your hard drive must be faulty or the boot block is missing. Boot to CDROM, open a shell and run fsck on the Hard Disk.
B. Change the boot device priority so that the CDROM is the third boot device and the HARD DISK is second.
C. Make the First boot device = LAN, Second boot device= CDROM, Third boot device = HARD DISK, remove the fourth boot device.
D. You did not set the fdisk boot partition to ACTIVE and the system cannot boot to the hard disk. Boot from CDROM, open a shell and use fdisk to set the partition to ACTIVE.
E. The GRUB menu is not correct and Solaris is not pointing to the hard disk that youve installed the Solaris OS on. Edit the GRUB menu and modify the default boot device so that it points to the correct boot drive.
Answer: B
5. Another system administrator created several snapshots on the server. The snapshots were backed up to tape using ufsdump. The tapes were labeled using each virtual device name and the corresponding mount point but does not include the name of the original file system where the snapshot was taken. How can you determine the file system that was backed up to tape?
A. Load the tape and list what is on the tape.
B. Use /usr/sbin/fssnap -i and compare the virtual device to its corresponding filesystem.
C. Use /usr/lib/fs/ufs/fssnap -i and compare the virtual device to its corresponding filesystem.
D. Check the /etc/dumpdates file- the actual file system name will be stored there with the other backup information.
Answer: C
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6. The print service under the control of SMF needs to be taken offline. Before the print service is taken offline, a check must be made to see what other services depend on this service.Which command will display these dependencies?
A. svcs -X
B. svcs -v
C. svcs -a
D. svcs -
DAnswer: D
7. You want to monitor a failed login after five unsuccessful attempts.Which file contains this information?
A. /var/adm/sulog
B. /var/adm/lastlog
C. /var/adm/loginlog
D. /var/adm/failedloginlog
Answer: C
8. Given:joe@dhcp-105# ftp dhcp-100Connected to dhcp-100.corp.com.220 dhcp-100 FTP server ready.Name (dhcp-100:root): root331 Password required for root.Password: root530 Login incorrect.Login failed.ftp>Which two statements are always true? (Choose two.)
A. The password for root on dhcp-105 is root.
B. A user on dhcp-105 is not authorized to log in to dhcp-100.
C. A user on dhcp-105 is trying use ftp to connect to dhcp-100.
D. A user on dhcp-100 sucessfully logged in to dhcp-105.
E. A user on dhcp-105 is trying to log in to dhcp-100 with the root id.
Answer: CE
9. The print server on the network has one print spooler defined, called printer1. You have a requirement to modify the shell script that actually sends the jobs associated with printer1 to the printer.Which file should you modify?
A. /etc/printers.conf
B. /etc/lp/interfaces/printer1
C. /var/spool/lp/requests/printer1
D. /usr/lib/lp/postscript/postprint
Answer: B
10. A server has not had any changes made to the configuration of the standard system login accounts. It has a number of tape devices attached to it. The server is the only system on the local network that has tape devices. A file must be configured to allow backups.Which file must be correctly configured on the system with the tape devices attached to enable the other system to successfully perform its backup?
A. /.rhosts
B. /etc/hosts.equiv
C. /etc/rmt/tape.conf
D. /etc/hostname.rmt0
Answer: A
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1. You are installing Solaris 10 OS on a SPARC-based system with a graphical monitor and keyboard, but the installation starts up in CLI mode. Assuming you have typed the correct installation command, what is the cause?
A. You used the DVD.
B. The monitor is monochrome.
C. Solaris OS is a text-only installation.
D. The system has less than 384 megabytes of RAM.
E. The system has less than 128 megabytes of RAM.
Answer: E
2. Most files in the Solaris OS make use of data blocks. Which two do NOT use data blocks for storage? (Choose two.)
A. Hard link
B. Directory
C. Device file
D. Symbolic link
Answer: AC
3. You have installed a package called SUNWvts onto your system. Where is the information about every file and directory contained in this package stored?
A. /var/sadm/messages
B. In your home directory.
C. /var/spool/SUNWvts
D. /var/sadm/install/contentsE. /var/adm/installed/contentsF. /etc/default/installed/packages/information
Answer: D
4. You just installed Solaris on your x86 server and you cannot get your system to boot to the Solaris 10 OS. When rebooting, you get three options in the GRUB menu:SolarisSolaris Serial Console ttyaSolaris Serial Console ttybYou select Solaris from the menu and another menu appears:
1. Solaris Interactive
2. Custom JumpStart
3. Solaris Interactive Text (Desktop Session)
4. Solaris Interactive Text (Console Session)
5. Apply driver update6. Single User ShellYou check the BIOS settings on the server and the boot device priority is as follows:First Boot Device [FLOPPY]Second boot device [CDROM]Third Boot Device [HARD DISK]Fourth Boot Device [LAN]Which option can you use to fix the problem?
A. The boot device priority is fine, your hard drive must be faulty or the boot block is missing. Boot to CDROM, open a shell and run fsck on the Hard Disk.
B. Change the boot device priority so that the CDROM is the third boot device and the HARD DISK is second.
C. Make the First boot device = LAN, Second boot device= CDROM, Third boot device = HARD DISK, remove the fourth boot device.
D. You did not set the fdisk boot partition to ACTIVE and the system cannot boot to the hard disk. Boot from CDROM, open a shell and use fdisk to set the partition to ACTIVE.
E. The GRUB menu is not correct and Solaris is not pointing to the hard disk that youve installed the Solaris OS on. Edit the GRUB menu and modify the default boot device so that it points to the correct boot drive.
Answer: B
5. Another system administrator created several snapshots on the server. The snapshots were backed up to tape using ufsdump. The tapes were labeled using each virtual device name and the corresponding mount point but does not include the name of the original file system where the snapshot was taken. How can you determine the file system that was backed up to tape?
A. Load the tape and list what is on the tape.
B. Use /usr/sbin/fssnap -i and compare the virtual device to its corresponding filesystem.
C. Use /usr/lib/fs/ufs/fssnap -i and compare the virtual device to its corresponding filesystem.
D. Check the /etc/dumpdates file- the actual file system name will be stored there with the other backup information.
Answer: C
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6. The print service under the control of SMF needs to be taken offline. Before the print service is taken offline, a check must be made to see what other services depend on this service.Which command will display these dependencies?
A. svcs -X
B. svcs -v
C. svcs -a
D. svcs -
DAnswer: D
7. You want to monitor a failed login after five unsuccessful attempts.Which file contains this information?
A. /var/adm/sulog
B. /var/adm/lastlog
C. /var/adm/loginlog
D. /var/adm/failedloginlog
Answer: C
8. Given:joe@dhcp-105# ftp dhcp-100Connected to dhcp-100.corp.com.220 dhcp-100 FTP server ready.Name (dhcp-100:root): root331 Password required for root.Password: root530 Login incorrect.Login failed.ftp>Which two statements are always true? (Choose two.)
A. The password for root on dhcp-105 is root.
B. A user on dhcp-105 is not authorized to log in to dhcp-100.
C. A user on dhcp-105 is trying use ftp to connect to dhcp-100.
D. A user on dhcp-100 sucessfully logged in to dhcp-105.
E. A user on dhcp-105 is trying to log in to dhcp-100 with the root id.
Answer: CE
9. The print server on the network has one print spooler defined, called printer1. You have a requirement to modify the shell script that actually sends the jobs associated with printer1 to the printer.Which file should you modify?
A. /etc/printers.conf
B. /etc/lp/interfaces/printer1
C. /var/spool/lp/requests/printer1
D. /usr/lib/lp/postscript/postprint
Answer: B
10. A server has not had any changes made to the configuration of the standard system login accounts. It has a number of tape devices attached to it. The server is the only system on the local network that has tape devices. A file must be configured to allow backups.Which file must be correctly configured on the system with the tape devices attached to enable the other system to successfully perform its backup?
A. /.rhosts
B. /etc/hosts.equiv
C. /etc/rmt/tape.conf
D. /etc/hostname.rmt0
Answer: A
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some practice about Test4actual updated sun 310-202 exam
Here are some practice about sun 310-202 exam which are latest released by Test4actual,it provides a lot of IT certification exams,I hope they will help you pass your test.
1. An administrator needs to assign the IP address 192.168.3.7 to the interface hme1. The hme1interface is currently unused.Which two commands are needed to enable hme1and assign it the address without rebooting the system, as well as make the configuration persist across reboots? (Choose two.)
A. ifconfig hme1 plumb 192.168.3.7 up
B. echo "192.168.3.7" > /etc/hostname.hme1
C. ifconfig plumb hme1 inet 192.168.3.7 netmask 255.255.255.0 up
D. echo "ifconfig hme1 plumb 192.168.3.7 up">> /etc/hostname.hme1
Answer: AB
2. Which two statements are true about the inetdprocess on a system running the Solaris 10 OS? (Choose two.)
A. It only runs on servers.
B.It is considered the master restarter.
C. It starts well-known services on demand that are NOT automatically started at boot time.
D. It consults /etc/inet/servicesto determine which service to start when a request is received on a port.
Answer: CD
3. Due to increased demands that have been placed on your server, the swap space on this server is running low. You are going to add a swap file in the /datafile system as a temporary solution to add 500 Mbytes of additional swap space. Select the answer that describes which steps you need to perform?
A. # mkfile 500m /data swapfile# /usr/sbin/swap -a /data/swapfile Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file:/data/swapfile - - swap - no -
B. # mkfile 500m /data swapfile # /usr/sbin/swapon Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file: /data/swapfile - - swap - no -
C. # /usr/sbin/swap -a 500m /data/swapfile Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file: /data/swapfile - - swap - no - Reboot the server
D. # swap -a 500m/data swapfile Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file: /data/swapfile - - swap - no - #/ usr/sbin/swapon
Answer: A
4. The Solaris 10 OS supports the sharing of remote file resources and presents them to users as if they were local files and directories. The primary distributed file system (DFS) type supported by Solaris 10 OS is NFS.Which three statements are true about NFS as supported by Solaris 10 OS? (Choose three.)
A. The NFS server supported by Solaris 10 OS uses TCP exclusively.
B. An NFSv4-capable server can communicate with clients that use NFSv3 or earlier.
C. NFS uses the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) method of communication.
D. The NFS server supported by Solaris 10 OS can only communicate with clients using NFSv4.
E. The Solaris 10 OS uses NFSv4 by default when sharing a directory or accessing a named file.
F. The NFS server on Solaris 10 OS is started at bootup and is configured by modifying the /etc/rc.localfile.
Answer: BCE
5. In Solaris 10, this tool provides an automated and proactive approach to patch management. It provides a graphical user interface as well as a command line interface. Which tool is it?
A. smpatch
B. Patchtool
C. Patch manager
D. Update manager
Answer: D
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6. You have Solaris Volume Manager software installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.What should you do first?
A. run a command to create the first state database
B. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
C. run the vxinstallutility to initialize the volume manager software for use
D. create a soft partition using the -s initializeoption with the appropriate commandE. run a utility to add a license to enable Solaris Volume Manager software for Solaris 10 OS
Answer: A
7. Your system has three disk drives allocated for data storage. You are using Solaris Volume Manager to create your file system on these drives. The application will be read-intensive. Which configuration will provide the best data protection in the event of a failure?
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 1+0
Answer: A
8. You are the system administrator for a system running a business critical database application. To maintain data availability, you are using Solaris Volume Manager and have several two-way mirrors configured. You also have several hot spares created. When creating the hot spare pool, you added devices in this order:- a 1.0 gigabyte slice- a 2.2 gigabyte slice- a 9.8 gigabyte slice- a 3.2 gigabyte slice- a 6.5 gigabyte sliceYour monitoring software sends you an email indicating that one sub-mirror of a two-way Solaris Volume Manager software mirror has gone offline because of a hardware error.The sub-mirror that was taken offline was 2.3 gigabytes in size.Which hot spare component will the Solaris Volume Manager software use to recreate the sub-mirror automatically?
A. The 2.2 gigabyte component
B. The 3.2 gigabyte component
C. The 6.5 gigabyte component
D. The 9.8 gigabyte component
Answer: D
9. Your x86-based system has a ZFS file system named /files on the c0d1 drive. You want to rename this file system, so that every time the system boots, it is automatically mounted under the name /data. Which answer describes how to change the ZFS file system name from /files to /data?
A. zfs set mountpoint=/data data
B. zfs destroy files;zfs create /data
C. zfs destroy -f files; zpool create data c0d1
D. Create a directory named /data, then change /files to /data in the /etc/vfstab file.
Answer: A
10. Your system is newly built and has a default set up.When you add an account using roleadd, what is the default shell?
A. /usr/bin/sh
B. /usr/bin/ksh
C. /usr/bin/pfsh
D. /usr/bin/prsh
E. /usr/bin/pfjsh
F. /usr/bin/prksh
Answer: C
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1. An administrator needs to assign the IP address 192.168.3.7 to the interface hme1. The hme1interface is currently unused.Which two commands are needed to enable hme1and assign it the address without rebooting the system, as well as make the configuration persist across reboots? (Choose two.)
A. ifconfig hme1 plumb 192.168.3.7 up
B. echo "192.168.3.7" > /etc/hostname.hme1
C. ifconfig plumb hme1 inet 192.168.3.7 netmask 255.255.255.0 up
D. echo "ifconfig hme1 plumb 192.168.3.7 up">> /etc/hostname.hme1
Answer: AB
2. Which two statements are true about the inetdprocess on a system running the Solaris 10 OS? (Choose two.)
A. It only runs on servers.
B.It is considered the master restarter.
C. It starts well-known services on demand that are NOT automatically started at boot time.
D. It consults /etc/inet/servicesto determine which service to start when a request is received on a port.
Answer: CD
3. Due to increased demands that have been placed on your server, the swap space on this server is running low. You are going to add a swap file in the /datafile system as a temporary solution to add 500 Mbytes of additional swap space. Select the answer that describes which steps you need to perform?
A. # mkfile 500m /data swapfile# /usr/sbin/swap -a /data/swapfile Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file:/data/swapfile - - swap - no -
B. # mkfile 500m /data swapfile # /usr/sbin/swapon Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file: /data/swapfile - - swap - no -
C. # /usr/sbin/swap -a 500m /data/swapfile Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file: /data/swapfile - - swap - no - Reboot the server
D. # swap -a 500m/data swapfile Make the following entry in the /etc/vfstab file: /data/swapfile - - swap - no - #/ usr/sbin/swapon
Answer: A
4. The Solaris 10 OS supports the sharing of remote file resources and presents them to users as if they were local files and directories. The primary distributed file system (DFS) type supported by Solaris 10 OS is NFS.Which three statements are true about NFS as supported by Solaris 10 OS? (Choose three.)
A. The NFS server supported by Solaris 10 OS uses TCP exclusively.
B. An NFSv4-capable server can communicate with clients that use NFSv3 or earlier.
C. NFS uses the Remote Procedure Call (RPC) method of communication.
D. The NFS server supported by Solaris 10 OS can only communicate with clients using NFSv4.
E. The Solaris 10 OS uses NFSv4 by default when sharing a directory or accessing a named file.
F. The NFS server on Solaris 10 OS is started at bootup and is configured by modifying the /etc/rc.localfile.
Answer: BCE
5. In Solaris 10, this tool provides an automated and proactive approach to patch management. It provides a graphical user interface as well as a command line interface. Which tool is it?
A. smpatch
B. Patchtool
C. Patch manager
D. Update manager
Answer: D
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6. You have Solaris Volume Manager software installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.What should you do first?
A. run a command to create the first state database
B. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
C. run the vxinstallutility to initialize the volume manager software for use
D. create a soft partition using the -s initializeoption with the appropriate commandE. run a utility to add a license to enable Solaris Volume Manager software for Solaris 10 OS
Answer: A
7. Your system has three disk drives allocated for data storage. You are using Solaris Volume Manager to create your file system on these drives. The application will be read-intensive. Which configuration will provide the best data protection in the event of a failure?
A. RAID 5
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 0
D. RAID 1+0
Answer: A
8. You are the system administrator for a system running a business critical database application. To maintain data availability, you are using Solaris Volume Manager and have several two-way mirrors configured. You also have several hot spares created. When creating the hot spare pool, you added devices in this order:- a 1.0 gigabyte slice- a 2.2 gigabyte slice- a 9.8 gigabyte slice- a 3.2 gigabyte slice- a 6.5 gigabyte sliceYour monitoring software sends you an email indicating that one sub-mirror of a two-way Solaris Volume Manager software mirror has gone offline because of a hardware error.The sub-mirror that was taken offline was 2.3 gigabytes in size.Which hot spare component will the Solaris Volume Manager software use to recreate the sub-mirror automatically?
A. The 2.2 gigabyte component
B. The 3.2 gigabyte component
C. The 6.5 gigabyte component
D. The 9.8 gigabyte component
Answer: D
9. Your x86-based system has a ZFS file system named /files on the c0d1 drive. You want to rename this file system, so that every time the system boots, it is automatically mounted under the name /data. Which answer describes how to change the ZFS file system name from /files to /data?
A. zfs set mountpoint=/data data
B. zfs destroy files;zfs create /data
C. zfs destroy -f files; zpool create data c0d1
D. Create a directory named /data, then change /files to /data in the /etc/vfstab file.
Answer: A
10. Your system is newly built and has a default set up.When you add an account using roleadd, what is the default shell?
A. /usr/bin/sh
B. /usr/bin/ksh
C. /usr/bin/pfsh
D. /usr/bin/prsh
E. /usr/bin/pfjsh
F. /usr/bin/prksh
Answer: C
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2009年8月13日星期四
Access Routing and LAN Switching Routing and Switching AM Exam:646-057 exam
Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 646-057
Exam Name: Access Routing and LAN Switching Routing and Switching AM Exam
Questions and Answers:121Q&A
Update Time:2009-6-3
Price:$79.00
"Access Routing and LAN Switching ", also known as 646-057 exam, is a Cisco certification.Preparing for the 646-057 exam? Searching 646-057 Test Questions, 646-057 Practice Exam, 646-057 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 121 Q&A to your 646-057 exam preparation. In the 646-057 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Access Routing and LAN Switching helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
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Exam Details
The Access Routing and LAN Switching exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Access Routing and LAN Switching certification. The Access Routing and LAN Switching (646-057) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
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Exam Number/Code: 646-057
Exam Name: Access Routing and LAN Switching Routing and Switching AM Exam
Questions and Answers:121Q&A
Update Time:2009-6-3
Price:$79.00
"Access Routing and LAN Switching ", also known as 646-057 exam, is a Cisco certification.Preparing for the 646-057 exam? Searching 646-057 Test Questions, 646-057 Practice Exam, 646-057 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 121 Q&A to your 646-057 exam preparation. In the 646-057 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Access Routing and LAN Switching helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
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Exam Details
The Access Routing and LAN Switching exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate Access Routing and LAN Switching certification. The Access Routing and LAN Switching (646-057) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
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2009年8月11日星期二
Building Cisco Remote Access Networks (BCRAN):642-821 exam
Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-821
Exam Name: Building Cisco Remote Access Networks (BCRAN)
Questions and Answers:245Q&A
Update Time:2009-6-3
Price:$69.00
"CCNP ", also known as 642-821 exam, is a Cisco certification.Preparing for the 642-821 exam? Searching 642-821 Test Questions, 642-821 Practice Exam, 642-821 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 245 Q&A to your 642-821 exam preparation. In the 642-821 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCNP helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
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Exam Details
The CCNP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP certification. The CCNP (642-821) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
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Exam Number/Code: 642-821
Exam Name: Building Cisco Remote Access Networks (BCRAN)
Questions and Answers:245Q&A
Update Time:2009-6-3
Price:$69.00
"CCNP ", also known as 642-821 exam, is a Cisco certification.Preparing for the 642-821 exam? Searching 642-821 Test Questions, 642-821 Practice Exam, 642-821 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 245 Q&A to your 642-821 exam preparation. In the 642-821 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCNP helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
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Exam Details
The CCNP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP certification. The CCNP (642-821) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
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ACI WMBA CERTIFCIATE:3I0-007 exam
Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 3I0-007
Exam Name: ACI WMBA CERTIFCIATE
Questions and Answers:135Q&A
Update Time:2009-6-26
Price:$109.00
"ACI-Financial Markets Association ", also known as 3I0-007 exam, is a ACI certification.Preparing for the 3I0-007 exam? Searching 3I0-007 Test Questions, 3I0-007 Practice Exam, 3I0-007 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 135 Q&A to your 3I0-007 exam preparation. In the 3I0-007 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in ACI-Financial Markets Association helping to ready you for your successful ACI Certification.
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Exam Details
The ACI-Financial Markets Association exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the ACI Certified Network Associate ACI-Financial Markets Association certification. The ACI-Financial Markets Association (3I0-007) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection ACI Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to ACI Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various ACI networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
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Exam Number/Code: 3I0-007
Exam Name: ACI WMBA CERTIFCIATE
Questions and Answers:135Q&A
Update Time:2009-6-26
Price:$109.00
"ACI-Financial Markets Association ", also known as 3I0-007 exam, is a ACI certification.Preparing for the 3I0-007 exam? Searching 3I0-007 Test Questions, 3I0-007 Practice Exam, 3I0-007 Dumps?With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 135 Q&A to your 3I0-007 exam preparation. In the 3I0-007 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in ACI-Financial Markets Association helping to ready you for your successful ACI Certification.
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Exam Details
The ACI-Financial Markets Association exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the ACI Certified Network Associate ACI-Financial Markets Association certification. The ACI-Financial Markets Association (3I0-007) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection ACI Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to ACI Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various ACI networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
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2009年8月7日星期五
IT Certification:Test4actual latest release 642-825 2009-8-6!
Cisco 642-825 exams have changed, Test4actual is the first to publish the latest 642-825 exams!
1. Which two statements about common network attacks are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
B. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, ping sweeps, port scans, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
C. Access attacks can consist of packet sniffers, ping sweeps, port scans, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
D. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection and Internetinformation queries.
E. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of packet sniffers, port scans, ping sweeps, and Internet information queries.
F. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of ping sweeps, port scans, man-in-middle attacks and Internet information queries.
Answer: AE
2. Which two statements about the Cisco AutoSecure feature are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. All passwords entered during the AutoSecure configuration must be a minimum of 8 characters in length.
B. Cisco123 would be a valid password for both the enable password and the enable secret commands.
C. The auto secure command can be used to secure the router login as well as the NTP and SSH protocols.
D. For an interactive full session of AutoSecure, the auto secure login command should be used.
E. If the SSH server was configured, the 1024 bit RSA keys are generated after the auto secure command isenabled.
Answer: CE
3. Which three statements are correct about MPLS-based VPNs? (Choose three.)Select 3 response(s).
A. Route Targets (RTs) are attributes attached to a VPNv4 BGP route to indicate its VPN membership.
B. Scalability becomes challenging for a very large, fully meshed deployment.
C. Authentication is done using a digital certificate or pre-shared key.
D. A VPN client is required for client-initiated deployments.
E. A VPN client is not required for users to interact with the network.
F. An MPLS-based VPN is highly scalable because no site-to-site peering is required.
Answer: AEF
4. Which two Network Time Protocol (NTP) statements are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. A stratum 0 time server is required for NTP operation.
B. NTP is enabled on all interfaces by default, and all interfaces receive NTP packets.
C. NTP operates on IP networks using User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 123.
D. The ntp server global configuration is used to configure the NTP master clock to which other peerssynchronize themselves.
E. The show ntp status command displays detailed association information of all NTP peers.
F. Whenever possible, configure NTP version 5 because it automatically provides authentication and encryption services.
Answer: BC
5. What are the two main features of Cisco IOS Firewall? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. TACACS+
B. AAA
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Intrusion Prevention System
E. Authentication Proxy
Answer: DE
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6. Which two statements describe the functions and operations of IDS and IPS systems? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. A network administrator entering a wrong password would generate a true-negative alarm.
B. A false positive alarm is generated when an IDS/IPS signature is correctly identified.
C. An IDS is significantly more advanced over IPS because of its ability to prevent network attacks.
D. Cisco IDS works inline and stops attacks before they enter the network.
E. Cisco IPS taps the network traffic and responds after an attack.
F. Profile-based intrusion detection is also known as “anomaly detection”.
Answer: BF
7. Which two statements about packet sniffers or packet sniffing are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. To reduce the risk of packet sniffing, traffic rate limiting and RFC 2827 filtering should be used.
B. Packet sniffers can only work in a switched Ethernet environment.
C. To reduce the risk of packet sniffing, cryptographic protocols such as Secure Shell Protocol (SSH) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) should be used.
D. To reduce the risk of packet sniffing, strong authentication, such as one time passwords, should be used.
Answer: CD
8. Which two network attack statements are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
B. Access attacks can consist of UDP and TCP SYN flooding, ICMP echo-request floods, and ICMP directedbroadcasts.
C. DoS attacks can be reduced through the use of access control configuration, encryption, and RFC 2827 filtering.
D. DoS attacks can consist of IP spoofing and DDoS attacks.
E. IP spoofing can be reduced through the use of policy-based routing.
F. IP spoofing exploits known vulnerabilities in authentication services, FTP services, and web services to gain entry to web accounts, confidential databases, and other sensitive information.
Answer: AD
9. Which three techniques should be used to secure management protocols? (Choose three.)Select 3 response(s).
A. Configure SNMP with only read-only community strings.
B. Encrypt TFTP and syslog traffic in an IPSec tunnel.
C. Implement RFC 3704 filtering at the perimeter router when allowing syslog access from devices on the outside of a firewall.
D. Synchronize the NTP master clock with an Internet atomic clock.
E. Use SNMP version 2.
F. Use TFTP version 3 or above because these versions support a cryptographic authentication mechanismbetween peers.
Answer: ABC
10. Which two statements about the AutoSecure feature are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. AutoSecure automatically disables the CDP feature.
B. If you enable AutoSecure, the minimum length of the login and enable passwords is set to 6 characters.
C. The auto secure full command automatically configures the management and forwarding planes without any user interaction.
D. To enable AutoSecure, the auto secure global configuration command must be used.
E. Once AutoSecure has been configured, the user can launch the SDM Web interface to perform a security audit.
Answer: AB
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1. Which two statements about common network attacks are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
B. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, ping sweeps, port scans, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
C. Access attacks can consist of packet sniffers, ping sweeps, port scans, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
D. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection and Internetinformation queries.
E. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of packet sniffers, port scans, ping sweeps, and Internet information queries.
F. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of ping sweeps, port scans, man-in-middle attacks and Internet information queries.
Answer: AE
2. Which two statements about the Cisco AutoSecure feature are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. All passwords entered during the AutoSecure configuration must be a minimum of 8 characters in length.
B. Cisco123 would be a valid password for both the enable password and the enable secret commands.
C. The auto secure command can be used to secure the router login as well as the NTP and SSH protocols.
D. For an interactive full session of AutoSecure, the auto secure login command should be used.
E. If the SSH server was configured, the 1024 bit RSA keys are generated after the auto secure command isenabled.
Answer: CE
3. Which three statements are correct about MPLS-based VPNs? (Choose three.)Select 3 response(s).
A. Route Targets (RTs) are attributes attached to a VPNv4 BGP route to indicate its VPN membership.
B. Scalability becomes challenging for a very large, fully meshed deployment.
C. Authentication is done using a digital certificate or pre-shared key.
D. A VPN client is required for client-initiated deployments.
E. A VPN client is not required for users to interact with the network.
F. An MPLS-based VPN is highly scalable because no site-to-site peering is required.
Answer: AEF
4. Which two Network Time Protocol (NTP) statements are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. A stratum 0 time server is required for NTP operation.
B. NTP is enabled on all interfaces by default, and all interfaces receive NTP packets.
C. NTP operates on IP networks using User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 123.
D. The ntp server global configuration is used to configure the NTP master clock to which other peerssynchronize themselves.
E. The show ntp status command displays detailed association information of all NTP peers.
F. Whenever possible, configure NTP version 5 because it automatically provides authentication and encryption services.
Answer: BC
5. What are the two main features of Cisco IOS Firewall? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. TACACS+
B. AAA
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Intrusion Prevention System
E. Authentication Proxy
Answer: DE
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6. Which two statements describe the functions and operations of IDS and IPS systems? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. A network administrator entering a wrong password would generate a true-negative alarm.
B. A false positive alarm is generated when an IDS/IPS signature is correctly identified.
C. An IDS is significantly more advanced over IPS because of its ability to prevent network attacks.
D. Cisco IDS works inline and stops attacks before they enter the network.
E. Cisco IPS taps the network traffic and responds after an attack.
F. Profile-based intrusion detection is also known as “anomaly detection”.
Answer: BF
7. Which two statements about packet sniffers or packet sniffing are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. To reduce the risk of packet sniffing, traffic rate limiting and RFC 2827 filtering should be used.
B. Packet sniffers can only work in a switched Ethernet environment.
C. To reduce the risk of packet sniffing, cryptographic protocols such as Secure Shell Protocol (SSH) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) should be used.
D. To reduce the risk of packet sniffing, strong authentication, such as one time passwords, should be used.
Answer: CD
8. Which two network attack statements are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
B. Access attacks can consist of UDP and TCP SYN flooding, ICMP echo-request floods, and ICMP directedbroadcasts.
C. DoS attacks can be reduced through the use of access control configuration, encryption, and RFC 2827 filtering.
D. DoS attacks can consist of IP spoofing and DDoS attacks.
E. IP spoofing can be reduced through the use of policy-based routing.
F. IP spoofing exploits known vulnerabilities in authentication services, FTP services, and web services to gain entry to web accounts, confidential databases, and other sensitive information.
Answer: AD
9. Which three techniques should be used to secure management protocols? (Choose three.)Select 3 response(s).
A. Configure SNMP with only read-only community strings.
B. Encrypt TFTP and syslog traffic in an IPSec tunnel.
C. Implement RFC 3704 filtering at the perimeter router when allowing syslog access from devices on the outside of a firewall.
D. Synchronize the NTP master clock with an Internet atomic clock.
E. Use SNMP version 2.
F. Use TFTP version 3 or above because these versions support a cryptographic authentication mechanismbetween peers.
Answer: ABC
10. Which two statements about the AutoSecure feature are true? (Choose two.)Select 2 response(s).
A. AutoSecure automatically disables the CDP feature.
B. If you enable AutoSecure, the minimum length of the login and enable passwords is set to 6 characters.
C. The auto secure full command automatically configures the management and forwarding planes without any user interaction.
D. To enable AutoSecure, the auto secure global configuration command must be used.
E. Once AutoSecure has been configured, the user can launch the SDM Web interface to perform a security audit.
Answer: AB
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Test4actual IBM 000-100 exam updated
Hello,everyone,Test4actual is the first to update the IBM 000-100 exam,here are some practice about IBM 000-100 exam,we hope we can help you pass your test.
1. A customer has 2 VIO servers, supporting 4 client partitions. They want to configure Shared Ethernet Adapter Failover.What is the minimum number of physical Ethernet adapters required for each VIO server?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
ANSWER: A
2. What is the minimum requirement to update the managed system's firmware from the HMC if inventory scout is already installed?
A.A public internet connection
B.All logical partitions must be active
C.One partition must be configured with Service Authority
D.A local repository must be configured prior to the update
ANSWER: C
3. A customer wants to use Live Application Mobility which comes as part of the Workload Partition virtualization offering. Which of the following is the minimum configuration that will satisfy the customer requirement?
A.AIX 6.1 with POWER6
B.AIX 6.1 with POWER4
C.AIX 5.3 with POWER5
D.AIX 5.3 with POWER4
ANSWER: B
4. A customer wishes to use Live Partition Mobility for system maintenance. What is the minimum requirement?
A.PowerHA
B.Virtual I/O server 1.4
C.AIX Enterprise Edition
D.PowerVM Standard Edition
ANSWER: C
5. A customer is planning to use Live Partition Mobility on a new Power 570. Which of the following must be considered when pre-configuring the system in the IBM System Planning Tool (SPT)?
A.VIO-server setup is unsupported in SPT
B.Live Partition Mobility is unsupported in SPT
C.IVE setup is unsupported when using Live Partition Mobility
D.VIO-server setup is unsupported when using Live Partition Mobility
ANSWER: C
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6. The Integrated Virtualization Manager is packaged with which of the following?
A.PowerVM
B.Virtual I/O Server
C.Partition Load Manager
D.Virtual Workload Manager
ANSWER: B
7. What is required to collect data for analysis by the Workload Estimator (WLE)?
A.WLE LPP
B.WLE servlet
C.bos.wle.rte fileset
D.AIX 5.3 TL3 or later
ANSWER: D
8. A customer has multiple POWER5 systems connected to one HMC at version 6. They have ordered a new POWER6 system. What is necessary in order to get the new POWER6 system managed by an HMC?
A.The old HMC can be used without change.
B.The old HMC must be upgraded to the latest level.
C.POWER6 and POWER5 must be connected to different HMCs.
D.The POWER6 system must have a separate partition on the HMC.
ANSWER: B
9. A customer has purchased a 64-way Power 595. What must be considered when planning the physical location?
A.A Power 595 requires three-phase electricity on its own UPS.
B.A Power 595 must be placed on a concrete floor due to its weight.
C.A Power 595 must be placed on a raised floor because of the cooling requirement.
D.A Power 595 requires 1 meter of clear space on all sides for maintenance and airflow.
ANSWER: C
10. A customer has a VIOS environment configured on a Power 570 server. There are two LPARs with application servers and three with Oracle databases. Data disks are located on EMC Symmetrix boxes attached via SVC. Which driver should be used for disks on VIO servers?A.SVCD
B.RDAC
C.SDDPCM
D.PowerPath
ANSWER: C
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11. On a POWER6 570, which of the following will allow a single disk device to have multiple paths to a partition running AIX 6.1?
A.The SDD function included in AIX 6.1.
B.The MPIO function included in AIX 6.1.
C.The optional SDD driver on the AIX 6.1 installation media.
D.The optional MPIO driver on the AIX 6.1 installation media.
ANSWER: B
12. A customer is installing a Power 595 with dual HMCs for redundancy. What must be considered?
A.Each HMC requires use of different DHCP address ranges.
B.Both HMCs must be connected to the managed systems on the same private subnet.
C.The HMCs must be connected to the same port on the managed system using an internal hub.
D.The primary HMC must be configured as a DHCP host and the failover HMC as a DHCP client.
ANSWER: A
13. A customer has configured a dual VIOS environment and wants to map SAN attached disks to an LPAR using each VIO server. One VIO server is configured and the LPAR can see the disk but when trying to map the disks on the second VIO server, an error is given stating that there is no access to the device.Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A.The hdisk numbers on the VIO servers do not match.
B.MPIO support had not been installed on VIO server 2.
C.The virtual SCSI adapter on VIO server 2 does not have the client LPAR name defined.
D.The reserve_policy attribute of the hdisk is not set appropriately on the 1st VIO server.
ANSWER: D
14. A system administrator for a business recovery service center needs to test disaster recovery strategies for their clients who run AIX and Linux on several LPARs. Each client has a different system configuration. Each time a client comes in, the system configuration of the managed system must change for disaster recovery verification.What is the most efficient way to handle this using LPAR?
A.Create a set of LPARs for each client utilizing the needed resources and activate this set of LPARs.
B.Create one partition profile for each client. Reconfigure the managed system by activating the partition profile for that client.
C.Dynamically move processors and memory as needed into each logical partition. Reconfigure the managed system by activating and deactivating partition profiles.
D.Create a system profile for each client to combine the partition profiles needed. Reconfigure the managed system by activating and deactivating the system profile corresponding to that client.
ANSWER: D
15. A customer is planning for Live Partition Mobility. Which of the following can be used for this configuration?
A.Use of Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) and Fiber Channel (FC) devices for that partition.
B.Use of Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) and Virtual SCSI (vSCSI) devices for that partition.
C.Use of Integrated Virtual Ethernet Adapter (IVE) logical port and Fiber Channel (FC) devices for that partition.
D.Use of Integrated Virtual Ethernet Adapter (IVE) logical port and Virtual SCSI (vSCSI) devices for that partition.
ANSWER: B
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1. A customer has 2 VIO servers, supporting 4 client partitions. They want to configure Shared Ethernet Adapter Failover.What is the minimum number of physical Ethernet adapters required for each VIO server?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
ANSWER: A
2. What is the minimum requirement to update the managed system's firmware from the HMC if inventory scout is already installed?
A.A public internet connection
B.All logical partitions must be active
C.One partition must be configured with Service Authority
D.A local repository must be configured prior to the update
ANSWER: C
3. A customer wants to use Live Application Mobility which comes as part of the Workload Partition virtualization offering. Which of the following is the minimum configuration that will satisfy the customer requirement?
A.AIX 6.1 with POWER6
B.AIX 6.1 with POWER4
C.AIX 5.3 with POWER5
D.AIX 5.3 with POWER4
ANSWER: B
4. A customer wishes to use Live Partition Mobility for system maintenance. What is the minimum requirement?
A.PowerHA
B.Virtual I/O server 1.4
C.AIX Enterprise Edition
D.PowerVM Standard Edition
ANSWER: C
5. A customer is planning to use Live Partition Mobility on a new Power 570. Which of the following must be considered when pre-configuring the system in the IBM System Planning Tool (SPT)?
A.VIO-server setup is unsupported in SPT
B.Live Partition Mobility is unsupported in SPT
C.IVE setup is unsupported when using Live Partition Mobility
D.VIO-server setup is unsupported when using Live Partition Mobility
ANSWER: C
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6. The Integrated Virtualization Manager is packaged with which of the following?
A.PowerVM
B.Virtual I/O Server
C.Partition Load Manager
D.Virtual Workload Manager
ANSWER: B
7. What is required to collect data for analysis by the Workload Estimator (WLE)?
A.WLE LPP
B.WLE servlet
C.bos.wle.rte fileset
D.AIX 5.3 TL3 or later
ANSWER: D
8. A customer has multiple POWER5 systems connected to one HMC at version 6. They have ordered a new POWER6 system. What is necessary in order to get the new POWER6 system managed by an HMC?
A.The old HMC can be used without change.
B.The old HMC must be upgraded to the latest level.
C.POWER6 and POWER5 must be connected to different HMCs.
D.The POWER6 system must have a separate partition on the HMC.
ANSWER: B
9. A customer has purchased a 64-way Power 595. What must be considered when planning the physical location?
A.A Power 595 requires three-phase electricity on its own UPS.
B.A Power 595 must be placed on a concrete floor due to its weight.
C.A Power 595 must be placed on a raised floor because of the cooling requirement.
D.A Power 595 requires 1 meter of clear space on all sides for maintenance and airflow.
ANSWER: C
10. A customer has a VIOS environment configured on a Power 570 server. There are two LPARs with application servers and three with Oracle databases. Data disks are located on EMC Symmetrix boxes attached via SVC. Which driver should be used for disks on VIO servers?A.SVCD
B.RDAC
C.SDDPCM
D.PowerPath
ANSWER: C
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11. On a POWER6 570, which of the following will allow a single disk device to have multiple paths to a partition running AIX 6.1?
A.The SDD function included in AIX 6.1.
B.The MPIO function included in AIX 6.1.
C.The optional SDD driver on the AIX 6.1 installation media.
D.The optional MPIO driver on the AIX 6.1 installation media.
ANSWER: B
12. A customer is installing a Power 595 with dual HMCs for redundancy. What must be considered?
A.Each HMC requires use of different DHCP address ranges.
B.Both HMCs must be connected to the managed systems on the same private subnet.
C.The HMCs must be connected to the same port on the managed system using an internal hub.
D.The primary HMC must be configured as a DHCP host and the failover HMC as a DHCP client.
ANSWER: A
13. A customer has configured a dual VIOS environment and wants to map SAN attached disks to an LPAR using each VIO server. One VIO server is configured and the LPAR can see the disk but when trying to map the disks on the second VIO server, an error is given stating that there is no access to the device.Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A.The hdisk numbers on the VIO servers do not match.
B.MPIO support had not been installed on VIO server 2.
C.The virtual SCSI adapter on VIO server 2 does not have the client LPAR name defined.
D.The reserve_policy attribute of the hdisk is not set appropriately on the 1st VIO server.
ANSWER: D
14. A system administrator for a business recovery service center needs to test disaster recovery strategies for their clients who run AIX and Linux on several LPARs. Each client has a different system configuration. Each time a client comes in, the system configuration of the managed system must change for disaster recovery verification.What is the most efficient way to handle this using LPAR?
A.Create a set of LPARs for each client utilizing the needed resources and activate this set of LPARs.
B.Create one partition profile for each client. Reconfigure the managed system by activating the partition profile for that client.
C.Dynamically move processors and memory as needed into each logical partition. Reconfigure the managed system by activating and deactivating partition profiles.
D.Create a system profile for each client to combine the partition profiles needed. Reconfigure the managed system by activating and deactivating the system profile corresponding to that client.
ANSWER: D
15. A customer is planning for Live Partition Mobility. Which of the following can be used for this configuration?
A.Use of Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) and Fiber Channel (FC) devices for that partition.
B.Use of Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) and Virtual SCSI (vSCSI) devices for that partition.
C.Use of Integrated Virtual Ethernet Adapter (IVE) logical port and Fiber Channel (FC) devices for that partition.
D.Use of Integrated Virtual Ethernet Adapter (IVE) logical port and Virtual SCSI (vSCSI) devices for that partition.
ANSWER: B
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some practice about Test4actual updated IBM 000-377 exam
Here are some practice about IBM 000-377 exam which are released by Test4actual,it provides a lot of IT certification exams,I hope they will help you pass your test.
1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automaticallyafter installation?
A.Start the server.
B.Execute wsadmin.
C.Configure resources.
D.Run the Snoop servlet.
ANSWER: A
2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections?
A.a data source
B.connection factories
C.connection pool settings
D.a JMS activation specification
ANSWER: B
3. Global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. Theadministrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating systemregistry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new localoperating system user ID App1Admin.Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?
A.The administrator can access Application1.
B.The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C.App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D.App1Admin can access the administrative console.
ANSWER: B
4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities doesWebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?A.wsadmin
B.The administrative agent
C.The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D.Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
ANSWER: C
5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which ofthe following commands would be relevant?
A.backupConfig -location location
B.restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C.manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D.wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
ANSWER: C
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6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Webservers?
A.Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B.Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C.Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D.Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
ANSWER: D
7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a requestfrom a Web browser to a servlet?
A.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B.Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C.Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
ANSWER: D
8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts ina network?By using:
A.a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.
B.a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their nodeagents.
C.a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through theiradministrative agents.
D.an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through theiradministrative service.
ANSWER: A
9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?A.Generic servers
B.Application servers
C.Managed HTTP servers
D.Unmanaged HTTP servers
ANSWER: D
10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them togetherin a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A.Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B.Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C.Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D.Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
ANSWER: C
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11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups toimplement a distributed environment? To:
A.segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B.define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C.enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.
D.allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically forworkload management.
ANSWER: C
12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web applicationrunning in a clustered environment.What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?
A.Configure dynamic caching
B.Enable memory-to-memory replication
C.Configure session replication to use a database.
D.Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
ANSWER: A
13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within aflexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification usingwsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?
A.Node agent
B.Job manager
C.Work manager
D.Administrative agent
E.Deployment manager
ANSWER: BE
14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Sessionpersistence?
A.Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B.Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C.Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D.Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
ANSWER: C
15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactionsfrom the transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A.RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B.Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C.File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D.Lease-based exclusive locks on files
ANSWER: D
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16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?A.Client mode
B.Server mode
C.Not shared
D.Push only
E.Both push and pull
F.Broadcast mode
ANSWER: CDE
17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.
A.Node agents
B.Web servers
C.Caching Proxy
D.Dynamic cache replication
E.HTTP session persistence and failover
F.Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
ANSWER: DEF
18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexiblemanagement topology and the network deployment cell?
A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
ANSWER: A
19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, whichone of the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A
20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation ofWebSphere Application Server?
A.The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B.The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in thefuture.
C.The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to includeadministrative security.
D.The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.
ANSWER: B
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1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automaticallyafter installation?
A.Start the server.
B.Execute wsadmin.
C.Configure resources.
D.Run the Snoop servlet.
ANSWER: A
2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections?
A.a data source
B.connection factories
C.connection pool settings
D.a JMS activation specification
ANSWER: B
3. Global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. Theadministrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating systemregistry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new localoperating system user ID App1Admin.Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?
A.The administrator can access Application1.
B.The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C.App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D.App1Admin can access the administrative console.
ANSWER: B
4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities doesWebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?A.wsadmin
B.The administrative agent
C.The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D.Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
ANSWER: C
5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which ofthe following commands would be relevant?
A.backupConfig -location location
B.restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C.manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D.wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
ANSWER: C
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6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Webservers?
A.Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B.Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C.Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D.Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
ANSWER: D
7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a requestfrom a Web browser to a servlet?
A.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B.Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C.Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
ANSWER: D
8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts ina network?By using:
A.a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.
B.a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their nodeagents.
C.a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through theiradministrative agents.
D.an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through theiradministrative service.
ANSWER: A
9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?A.Generic servers
B.Application servers
C.Managed HTTP servers
D.Unmanaged HTTP servers
ANSWER: D
10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them togetherin a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A.Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B.Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C.Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D.Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
ANSWER: C
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11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups toimplement a distributed environment? To:
A.segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B.define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C.enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.
D.allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically forworkload management.
ANSWER: C
12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web applicationrunning in a clustered environment.What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?
A.Configure dynamic caching
B.Enable memory-to-memory replication
C.Configure session replication to use a database.
D.Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
ANSWER: A
13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within aflexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification usingwsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?
A.Node agent
B.Job manager
C.Work manager
D.Administrative agent
E.Deployment manager
ANSWER: BE
14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Sessionpersistence?
A.Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B.Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C.Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D.Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
ANSWER: C
15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactionsfrom the transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A.RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B.Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C.File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D.Lease-based exclusive locks on files
ANSWER: D
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16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?A.Client mode
B.Server mode
C.Not shared
D.Push only
E.Both push and pull
F.Broadcast mode
ANSWER: CDE
17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.
A.Node agents
B.Web servers
C.Caching Proxy
D.Dynamic cache replication
E.HTTP session persistence and failover
F.Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
ANSWER: DEF
18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexiblemanagement topology and the network deployment cell?
A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
ANSWER: A
19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, whichone of the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A
20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation ofWebSphere Application Server?
A.The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B.The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in thefuture.
C.The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to includeadministrative security.
D.The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.
ANSWER: B
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