The IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Developer COG-702 exam covers key
concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation
for the exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience,
and a detailed review of product documentation.
IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Developer COG-702
Exam Number/Code : COG-702
Exam
Name : IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Developer
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IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Developer COG-702 exam topics
TM1
Server and Logs (11%)
Demonstrate knowledge of TM1 server
Demonstrate
knowledge of Sandbox
Demonstrate knowledge of TM1 log files
Demonstrate
knowledge of TM1 Top
TM1 User Interface (11%)
Demonstrate knowledge of
perspective-based forms
Describe Cognos Insight
Describe development
tools
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You want to improve one TM1 cube by adding Skipcheck and Feeder
statements to a Rules file.
Which statement is correct?
A. The addition of
rule-calculated cells to a cube will cause reduced consumption of RAM.
B. The
data integrit y of consolidated cells will improve.
C. The performance of
views containing rule -calculated cells will improve.
D. Cross cube rule
statements will be no longer be ignored.
Answer: C
Which three are typically stored within a TM1 control object? (Choose
three.)
A. A list of TM1 users
B. TM1 system errors
C. Data required by
the TM1 server to perform a driver- based calculation
D. TM1 object -level
security permi ssions
E. Statistical performance data about the TM1
server
Answer: A, D, E
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2013年4月20日星期六
Network+ N10-005 exam questions
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14.The location that the local network connection ends and the ISP responsibility begins is known as the:
A. Access point.
B. Default gateway.
C. IDF connection.
D. Demarcation point.
Answer: D
15.Joe, a user, is unable to reach websites, but is able to ping several Internet IPv4 addresses. Which of
the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. Incorrect DNS
C. Missing default gateway
D. Incorrect IPv6 address
Answer: B
N10-005 Exam:CompTIA Network+ Certification Test Details
Number of questions Maximum of 100 questions
Type of questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of test 90 minutes
Passing score 720 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended experience CompTIA A+ certification and nine months networking experience
Languages English, Japanese, German, Simplified Chinese, Korean, Spanish, Traditional Chinese
Exam codes N10-005
The current version of CompTIA Network+, exam code N10-005, was released Dec. 1, 2011. The revised objectives address virtual networking and give increased attention to network security and coverage of the seven-layer OSI (Open System Interconnection) model.CompTIA is an ANSI accredited Certifier – 0731. The CompTIA Network+ce program is included in the scope of this accreditation. The CompTIA Network+ certification may be kept current through the CompTIA Continuing Education program.
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14.The location that the local network connection ends and the ISP responsibility begins is known as the:
A. Access point.
B. Default gateway.
C. IDF connection.
D. Demarcation point.
Answer: D
15.Joe, a user, is unable to reach websites, but is able to ping several Internet IPv4 addresses. Which of
the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. Incorrect DNS
C. Missing default gateway
D. Incorrect IPv6 address
Answer: B
N10-005 Exam:CompTIA Network+ Certification Test Details
Number of questions Maximum of 100 questions
Type of questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of test 90 minutes
Passing score 720 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended experience CompTIA A+ certification and nine months networking experience
Languages English, Japanese, German, Simplified Chinese, Korean, Spanish, Traditional Chinese
Exam codes N10-005
The current version of CompTIA Network+, exam code N10-005, was released Dec. 1, 2011. The revised objectives address virtual networking and give increased attention to network security and coverage of the seven-layer OSI (Open System Interconnection) model.CompTIA is an ANSI accredited Certifier – 0731. The CompTIA Network+ce program is included in the scope of this accreditation. The CompTIA Network+ certification may be kept current through the CompTIA Continuing Education program.
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Object-Oriented Design Principles
Write code that declares, implements and/or extends interfaces
Choose between interface inheritance and class inheritance
Develop code that implements “is-a” and/or “has-a” relationships
Apply object composition principles
Design a class using the Singleton design pattern
Write code to implement the DAO pattern
Design and create objects using a factory, and use factories from the API
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12.Given the code fragment:
public class DisplaValues {
public void printNums (int [] nums){
for (int number: nums) {
System.err.println(number);
}
}
}
Assume the method printNums is passed a valid array containing data. Why is this method not
producing output on the console?
A. There is a compilation error.
B. There is a runtime exception.
C. The variable number is not initialized.
D. Standard error is mapped to another destination.
Answer: D
13.Which method would you supply to a class implementing the Callable interface?
A. callable ()
B. executable ()
C. call ()
D. run ()
E. start ()
Answer: C
Oracle Java SE 7 Programmer II Exam 1Z0-804
Exam Number/Code : 1Z0-804
Exam Name : Java SE 7 Programmer II Exam
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Oracle Java SE 7 Programmer II Exam 1Z0-804 exam topics
Object-Oriented Design Principles
Write code that declares, implements and/or extends interfaces
Choose between interface inheritance and class inheritance
Develop code that implements “is-a” and/or “has-a” relationships
Apply object composition principles
Design a class using the Singleton design pattern
Write code to implement the DAO pattern
Design and create objects using a factory, and use factories from the API
Oracle Java SE 7 Programmer II Exam 1Z0-804 demo
12.Given the code fragment:
public class DisplaValues {
public void printNums (int [] nums){
for (int number: nums) {
System.err.println(number);
}
}
}
Assume the method printNums is passed a valid array containing data. Why is this method not
producing output on the console?
A. There is a compilation error.
B. There is a runtime exception.
C. The variable number is not initialized.
D. Standard error is mapped to another destination.
Answer: D
13.Which method would you supply to a class implementing the Callable interface?
A. callable ()
B. executable ()
C. call ()
D. run ()
E. start ()
Answer: C
Oracle Java SE 7 Programmer II Exam 1Z0-804
Exam Number/Code : 1Z0-804
Exam Name : Java SE 7 Programmer II Exam
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000-058 practice questions
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IBM Rational Performance Tester V8 000-058
Exam Number/Code : 000-058
Exam Name : Rational Performance Tester V8
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3.Which statement is true about a custom code segment?
A. It can use any string highlighted in orange as an input variable.
B. It can use one or more references that precede it as input variables.
C. It can use one or more references that follow it as return values.
D. It always returns null unless there has been a correlation error.
Answer: B
4.What do good candidates for datapool substitution do?
A. simulate unique user credentials and data entry choices by individual users
B. simulate random timing and workflow variations by individual users
C. improve application performance by requesting pages that are already cached
D. make performance more predictable by using the same data values for every user
Answer: A
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3.Which statement is true about a custom code segment?
A. It can use any string highlighted in orange as an input variable.
B. It can use one or more references that precede it as input variables.
C. It can use one or more references that follow it as return values.
D. It always returns null unless there has been a correlation error.
Answer: B
4.What do good candidates for datapool substitution do?
A. simulate unique user credentials and data entry choices by individual users
B. simulate random timing and workflow variations by individual users
C. improve application performance by requesting pages that are already cached
D. make performance more predictable by using the same data values for every user
Answer: A
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642-980 dcuft exam
The 642-980
Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric exam tests a candidate’s
troubleshooting skills in the Unified Fabric domain, troubleshooting
connectivity issues, convergent I/O, Storage issues, as well as issues related
to specific features like OTV (overlay transport virtualization) and it is
associated with the CCNP DC certification and Cisco Unified Fabric Support
Specialist certification.
Cisco Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric 642-980
Exam Number/Code : 642-980
Exam Name : Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
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Troubleshooting Layer 2 connectivity issues in a Cisco Data Center network
Identify and resolve Ethernet port-channels issues
Identify and resolve vPC issues
Identify and resolve FabricPath issues
Identify and resolve PVLAN issues
Troubleshooting platform specific issues in a Cisco Data center network
Identify and resolve cfs issues
Identify and resolve Config-Sync Issues
Identify and resolve ISSU issues
Identify and resolve Fex issues
Identify and resolve VDC issues
Identify and resolve Layer1 issues
Identify and resolve cpu memory
Identify and resolve control plane policing (COPP) issues
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Troubleshooting Layer 2 connectivity issues in a Cisco Data Center network
Identify and resolve Ethernet port-channels issues
Identify and resolve vPC issues
Identify and resolve FabricPath issues
Identify and resolve PVLAN issues
Troubleshooting platform specific issues in a Cisco Data center network
Identify and resolve cfs issues
Identify and resolve Config-Sync Issues
Identify and resolve ISSU issues
Identify and resolve Fex issues
Identify and resolve VDC issues
Identify and resolve Layer1 issues
Identify and resolve cpu memory
Identify and resolve control plane policing (COPP) issues
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2013年4月18日星期四
642-618 updated study guide
The 642-618 Deploying
Cisco ASA Firewall Solutions (FIREWALL v2.0) exam is associated with the CCNP
Security and Cisco Firewall Specialist certifications. This exam tests a
candidate’s knowledge and skills needed to implement and maintain Cisco
ASA-based perimeter solutions. Successful graduates will be able to reduce risk
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Cisco Deploying Cisco ASA Firewall Solutions (FIREWALL v2.0) 642-618
Exam Number/Code : 642-618
Exam Name : Deploying Cisco ASA Firewall Solutions (FIREWALL v2.0)
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2.By default, which traffic can pass through a Cisco ASA that is operating in transparent mode without
explicitly allowing it using an ACL.?
A. ARP
B. BPDU
C. CDP
D. OSPF multicasts
E. DHCP
Answer: A
3.When enabling a Cisco ASA to send syslog messages to a syslog server, which syslog level will
produce the most messages?
A. notifications
B. informational
C. alerts
D. emergencies
E. errors
F. debugging
Answer: F
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2.By default, which traffic can pass through a Cisco ASA that is operating in transparent mode without
explicitly allowing it using an ACL.?
A. ARP
B. BPDU
C. CDP
D. OSPF multicasts
E. DHCP
Answer: A
3.When enabling a Cisco ASA to send syslog messages to a syslog server, which syslog level will
produce the most messages?
A. notifications
B. informational
C. alerts
D. emergencies
E. errors
F. debugging
Answer: F
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MB6-886 PDF Preparation Material
Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Process Manufacturing Production and Logistics
MB6-886
Exam Number/Code : MB6-886
Exam Name : Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Process Manufacturing Production and Logistics
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4.Which of the following manufacturing requirements does process manufacturing address?
A. batch production
B. contract manufacturing
C. engineer to order
D. Lean manufacturing
Answer: A
5.Which of the following characteristics apply only to a formula item and NOT to a bill of materials (BOM)
item?
A. Default order settings apply to the item.
B. The item must have the serial tracking dimension.
C. The item must be defined at the organization level.
D. The production of the item can result in the production of co-products.
Answer: D
This MB6-886 exam is intended for individuals who plan to use Process Manufacturing business processes and functions in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012. This audience typically includes systems developers and implementation consultants.
Additional Skills Recommended:
General working knowledge of process manufacturing and the Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 functionalities that apply to process manufacturing.
Credit Toward Certification
When you pass Exam MB6-886: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Process Manufacturing Production and Logistics, you complete the requirements for the following certification(s):
Microsoft Dynamics Certified Technology Specialist
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4.Which of the following manufacturing requirements does process manufacturing address?
A. batch production
B. contract manufacturing
C. engineer to order
D. Lean manufacturing
Answer: A
5.Which of the following characteristics apply only to a formula item and NOT to a bill of materials (BOM)
item?
A. Default order settings apply to the item.
B. The item must have the serial tracking dimension.
C. The item must be defined at the organization level.
D. The production of the item can result in the production of co-products.
Answer: D
This MB6-886 exam is intended for individuals who plan to use Process Manufacturing business processes and functions in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012. This audience typically includes systems developers and implementation consultants.
Additional Skills Recommended:
General working knowledge of process manufacturing and the Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 functionalities that apply to process manufacturing.
Credit Toward Certification
When you pass Exam MB6-886: Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Process Manufacturing Production and Logistics, you complete the requirements for the following certification(s):
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4.How many current and saved orders does ATG allow a user profile to have?
A. ATG allows one current order and one saved order per user profile.
B. ATGallows one current order and a collection of saved orders per user profile.
C. ATG allows multiple current orders and a collection of saved orders per user profile.
D. Only one order can exist for a Give user profileinATG. There is no support for saved orders.
Answer: B
5.What is the reanimated order?
A. INCOMPLETEorders that have not been checked out by customers andinstead have remained idle for
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B. Previously abandoned orders that have since been modified by the customerinsome way, such as
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Oracle ATG Web Commerce 10 Implementation Developer Essentials 1Z0-510 topics
Introduction to ATG Page Development
Utilize the appropriate JSTL and DSP tags, as well as Expression Language Constructs to build ATG Dynamo Pages.
Use out-of-the-box droplets and create custom droplets to deliver dynamic content
Use DSP forms, out-of-the-box ATG and custom form handlers to accept, validate and process user input.
Introduction to ATG Repositories
Configure SQL Repositories using ATG’s Data Anywhere Architecture
Query the ATG Repository using RQL and out-of-the-box Droplets and APIs
Oracle ATG Web Commerce 10 Implementation Developer Essentials 1Z0-510 free dumps demo
4.How many current and saved orders does ATG allow a user profile to have?
A. ATG allows one current order and one saved order per user profile.
B. ATGallows one current order and a collection of saved orders per user profile.
C. ATG allows multiple current orders and a collection of saved orders per user profile.
D. Only one order can exist for a Give user profileinATG. There is no support for saved orders.
Answer: B
5.What is the reanimated order?
A. INCOMPLETEorders that have not been checked out by customers andinstead have remained idle for
a duration of time
B. Previously abandoned orders that have since been modified by the customerinsome way, such as
adding items or changing item quantities.
C. Previously abandoned orders that have been successfully checked out by the customer.
D. Abandoned orders that have been abandoned for so long that reanimation of the order is no longer
considered realistic.
Answer: B
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8.Which script moves client software to a remote UNIX client from a UNIX master server?
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B. install_client_files
C. client_config
D. send_client_files
E. update_client
Answer: B
9.An organization plans to upgrade its master server to Symantec NetBackup 7.5. A Symantec
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version or versions are supported on the media server performing the catalog backup?
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B. 7.5 only
C. 7.1 or 7.5 only
D. 7.0, 7.1, or 7.5
Answer: B
10.Which two tasks does the catalog backup perform? (Select two.)
A. ensures the catalog backup is created in a safe location
B. automatically assigns tapes to the CatalogBackup pool
C. appends to existing data on tape
D. backs up the catalog only when there are no client backups in progress
E. copies the NBDB to a staging area before backing it up
Answer: C,E
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2.In a company all the applications deployed in a WebSphere Process Server network deployment
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What is the suggested message reliability level that could be proposed in this situation.?
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C. Reliable non-persistent
D. Best effort non-persistent
Answer: A
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Section 4 – System Administration and Security (17%)
Monitor and manage processes and tasks.
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1.A deployment professional is installing an application which uses business processes in a clustered
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previously been configured. During which phase of the installation is the application validated?
A. During the installation phase on the node agent.
B. During the installation phase on the deployment manager.
C. During the configuration phase on the application server.
D. During the application start phase on the application server.
Answer: B
2.In a company all the applications deployed in a WebSphere Process Server network deployment
environment extensively leverage asynchronous messaging with JMS bindings. There is a requirement to
resubmit the messages in case of infrastructure failures or planned shutdown.
What is the suggested message reliability level that could be proposed in this situation.?
A. Assured persistent
B. Reliable persistent
C. Reliable non-persistent
D. Best effort non-persistent
Answer: A
IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0 Deployment 000-608 topics
Section 4 – System Administration and Security (17%)
Monitor and manage processes and tasks.
Administer and secure WebSphere Business Space.
Configure and use Application Scheduler.
Administer event sequencing.
Administer business rules and selectors.
Use the store-and-forward capabilities of WebSphere Process Server.
Administer application end-to-end security (Web Services, WebSphere Adapters, HTTP, J2EE roles).
Use the Service Integration Bus (SIB) Explorer.
Manage user and group security using external repositories.
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2013年4月17日星期三
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Exam Number/Code : 000-377
Exam Name : IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Administration
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Section 5 – Workload Management, Scalability, High Availability Failover (14%)
Federate nodes (including custom profiles).
Create clusters and cluster members.
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Create and configure Data Replication Service (DRS) replication domains.
Manage Web servers in a managed and unmanaged node.
Manage WebSphere messaging in a clustered environment.
Configure workload management via the web server plug-in
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Manage application configurations (e.g., application bindings, HTTP session tuning, etc.).
Perform WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 backup, restore and configuration tasks.
Tune performance of WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 (e.g., JDBC data source, configure caching, queuing and thread pooling parameters, tune JVM heap size, etc.).
Use Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) / Request Metrics to gather information about resources and analyze results.
Develop and implement a maintenance application strategy using Update Installer and/or Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) (e.g., FixPacks, cumulative fixes and interim fixes.)
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18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible
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A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
ANSWER: A
19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of
the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A
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Update Time : 2013-3-28
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Section 5 – Workload Management, Scalability, High Availability Failover (14%)
Federate nodes (including custom profiles).
Create clusters and cluster members.
Configure session management (memory-to-memory, database persistence).
Create and configure Data Replication Service (DRS) replication domains.
Manage Web servers in a managed and unmanaged node.
Manage WebSphere messaging in a clustered environment.
Configure workload management via the web server plug-in
Section 6 – Maintenance, Performance Monitoring and Tuning (14%)
Manage application configurations (e.g., application bindings, HTTP session tuning, etc.).
Perform WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 backup, restore and configuration tasks.
Tune performance of WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 (e.g., JDBC data source, configure caching, queuing and thread pooling parameters, tune JVM heap size, etc.).
Use Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) / Request Metrics to gather information about resources and analyze results.
Develop and implement a maintenance application strategy using Update Installer and/or Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) (e.g., FixPacks, cumulative fixes and interim fixes.)
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18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible
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A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
ANSWER: A
19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of
the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A
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Which of the following activities describes the NEXT action to take?
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C. Determine the type of contract for the project.
D. Evaluate and select a seller response.
Answer: D
14.A project manager has just completed the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the project team.
Which of the following would be used during activity sequencing?
A. Precedence diagramming method
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Resource availability
D. Resource leveling technique
Answer: A
15.Fast tracking a schedule
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13.A project has just entered the execution phase. The deadline to respond to the RFP has expired.
Which of the following activities describes the NEXT action to take?
A. Develop a contract for each vendor.
B. Perform a make or buy analysis.
C. Determine the type of contract for the project.
D. Evaluate and select a seller response.
Answer: D
14.A project manager has just completed the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the project team.
Which of the following would be used during activity sequencing?
A. Precedence diagramming method
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Resource availability
D. Resource leveling technique
Answer: A
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Cisco 640-461 training
Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461
Exam Number/Code : 640-461
Exam Name : Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications
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Questions and Answers : 119Q&As
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Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461 topcis
Provision end users and associated devices
Describe user creation options for Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Create or modify user accounts for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Create or modify user accounts for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI
Create or modify endpoints for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Create or modify endpoints for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI
Describe how calling privileges function and how calling privileges impact system features
Create or modify directory numbers
Enable user features and related calling privileges for extension mobility, call coverage, intercom, native presence, and unified mobility remote destination configuration
Enable end users for Cisco Unified Presence
Verify user features are operational
Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461 exam pdf demo
7.Which issue does CAS signaling on a T1 circuit create?
A. Signaling bits are subtracted from each frame, which causes a significant loss of voice quality.
B. An extra signaling bit is added to the sixth frame to carry signaling information.
C. A signaling bit is subtracted from every sixth frame to carry signaling information.
D. Signaling bits are added to the signaling stream to create extended super frames.
Answer: C
8.How does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express match an outbound VoIP dial peer?
A. Outbound dial-peer matching uses the entire string of digits en bloc to match the dial peer with the
longest match.
B. Outbound dial-peer matching is completed on a digit-by-digit basis.
C. It matches outbound dial peers by placing all the dial peers into a hunt group and then uses the entire
dialed number en bloc to match the first dial peer.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express creates a hunt group that contains all the configured
dial peers and then applies the dial digits in a digit-by-digit manner to match a dial peer.
Answer: A
The Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications Administration (ICOMM v8.0) 640-461 exam is associated with the CCNA Voice certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the architecture, components, functionalities, and features of Cisco Unified Communications solutions. It also tests the knowledge needed to perform tasks such as system monitoring, moves, additions and changes on Cisco Unified Communications Manager, Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, Cisco Unity Connection, and Cisco Unified Presence. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications Administration (ICOMM v8.0) 640-461 course.
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Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461 topcis
Provision end users and associated devices
Describe user creation options for Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Create or modify user accounts for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Create or modify user accounts for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI
Create or modify endpoints for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Create or modify endpoints for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI
Describe how calling privileges function and how calling privileges impact system features
Create or modify directory numbers
Enable user features and related calling privileges for extension mobility, call coverage, intercom, native presence, and unified mobility remote destination configuration
Enable end users for Cisco Unified Presence
Verify user features are operational
Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461 exam pdf demo
7.Which issue does CAS signaling on a T1 circuit create?
A. Signaling bits are subtracted from each frame, which causes a significant loss of voice quality.
B. An extra signaling bit is added to the sixth frame to carry signaling information.
C. A signaling bit is subtracted from every sixth frame to carry signaling information.
D. Signaling bits are added to the signaling stream to create extended super frames.
Answer: C
8.How does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express match an outbound VoIP dial peer?
A. Outbound dial-peer matching uses the entire string of digits en bloc to match the dial peer with the
longest match.
B. Outbound dial-peer matching is completed on a digit-by-digit basis.
C. It matches outbound dial peers by placing all the dial peers into a hunt group and then uses the entire
dialed number en bloc to match the first dial peer.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express creates a hunt group that contains all the configured
dial peers and then applies the dial digits in a digit-by-digit manner to match a dial peer.
Answer: A
The Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications Administration (ICOMM v8.0) 640-461 exam is associated with the CCNA Voice certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the architecture, components, functionalities, and features of Cisco Unified Communications solutions. It also tests the knowledge needed to perform tasks such as system monitoring, moves, additions and changes on Cisco Unified Communications Manager, Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, Cisco Unity Connection, and Cisco Unified Presence. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications Administration (ICOMM v8.0) 640-461 course.
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Managing the Oracle Instance
Use Enterprise Manager
Use SQL*Plus and iSQL*Plus to access the Oracle Database
Modify database initialization parameters
Describe the stages of database startup
Describe the database shutdown options
View the database alert log
Use dynamic performance views
Managing Database Storage Structures
Describe how table row data is stored in blocks
Define the purpose of tablespaces and data files
Explain space management in tablespaces
Create tablespaces
Manage tablespaces: alter, drop, take offline, put online, add data files, make read-only or read-write, generate DDL
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11.Which three statements are true regarding the fine-grained auditing (FGA)? (Choose three.)
A. FGA is possible on SELECT statements only.
B. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the AUD_LOG$ table.
C. FGA includes the SQL statement used by the user as part of the audit event entry.
D. FGA enables a SQL predicate to define when to audit an event.
E. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the FGA_LOG$ table.
F. FGA audits DELETE statements only when audit columns are specified.
Answer: CDE
12.Your database instance is started using the server parameter file (SPFILE). Control files are
multiplexed and stored on different disks. Because of a disk failure, you lost one of these control files. You
replaced the damaged disk. What is the correct sequence of steps that you would follow to recover the
control file?
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2. Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3. Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4. Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5. Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.
6. Open the database.
A. 2,4,3,4,5
B. 5,2,3,4
C. 4,5,6,2,3
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Answer: D
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oracle database 10g:administration i 1z0-042 Oracle exam topics
Managing the Oracle Instance
Use Enterprise Manager
Use SQL*Plus and iSQL*Plus to access the Oracle Database
Modify database initialization parameters
Describe the stages of database startup
Describe the database shutdown options
View the database alert log
Use dynamic performance views
Managing Database Storage Structures
Describe how table row data is stored in blocks
Define the purpose of tablespaces and data files
Explain space management in tablespaces
Create tablespaces
Manage tablespaces: alter, drop, take offline, put online, add data files, make read-only or read-write, generate DDL
Obtain tablespace information
Explain key features and benefits of ASM
oracle database 10g:administration i 1z0-042 dumps demo
11.Which three statements are true regarding the fine-grained auditing (FGA)? (Choose three.)
A. FGA is possible on SELECT statements only.
B. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the AUD_LOG$ table.
C. FGA includes the SQL statement used by the user as part of the audit event entry.
D. FGA enables a SQL predicate to define when to audit an event.
E. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the FGA_LOG$ table.
F. FGA audits DELETE statements only when audit columns are specified.
Answer: CDE
12.Your database instance is started using the server parameter file (SPFILE). Control files are
multiplexed and stored on different disks. Because of a disk failure, you lost one of these control files. You
replaced the damaged disk. What is the correct sequence of steps that you would follow to recover the
control file?
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2. Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3. Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4. Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5. Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.
6. Open the database.
A. 2,4,3,4,5
B. 5,2,3,4
C. 4,5,6,2,3
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Answer: D
The Oracle Database 10g: Administration I exam is a mandatory part of Oracle Database 10g DBA OCA certification. The target audience includes Database Administrators, Support Engineers, Technical consultants and Database Designers. we guaranteed certification prep for 1Z0-042 is comprehensive and helps you not only earn your certification in the shortest time possible, but to also gain the knowledge required on the job.
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Microsoft Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript 70-482
Exam Number/Code : 70-482
Exam Name : Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript
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7.You are writing a Windows Store app by using JavaScript. You need to authenticate a cloud server as a
source for Windows Push Notification Services (WNS).
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Register the app with the Dashboard.
B. Obtain the identity values and credentials for the app.
C. Create a code-signing certificate.
D. Create the HTTPS authentication request.
Answer: ABC
3.You are developing a Windows Store app. You configure the app to allow a free trial period. The app will
run during the trial period as though it were a fully licensed version. You will assign the time period when
you upload the app to the Windows Store. You need to prompt the user to purchase the full version of the
app when the trial period expires.
What should you do?
A. Call the getProductReceiptAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp object
and provide the app ¯ s pr oduct I Das an ar gu ment
B. Call the requestProductPurchaseAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp
object and provide the app s product ID as an argument.
C. Call the getAppReceiptAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp object.
D. Call the requestAppPurchaseAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp
object.
Answer: D
Candidates for this 70-482 exam should have a minimum of two to five years of experience developing HTML-based applications, including two or more years of experience developing applications for a touch-enabled interface/platform. Additionally, candidates should have the following:
Experience designing and developing the Process Lifetime Management (PLM) for Windows Store apps
Experience managing and securing application data for a Windows Store app solution
Experience planning and designing user interaction solutions based on requirements
Experience with the full development life cycle of Windows Store apps
Experience designing and developing asynchronous solutions
Experience creating apps that conform to the Windows Store app guidelines
Credit Toward Certification
Exam 70-482: Advanced Windows Store App Development using HTML5 and JavaScript: counts as credit toward the following certification(s):
MCSD: Windows Store Apps using HTML5
Note This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam, regardless of its format.
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Microsoft Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript 70-482
Exam Number/Code : 70-482
Exam Name : Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript
One year free update
Once failed,100% refund
Free 70-482 Demo Download
Questions and Answers : 75Q&As
Update Time : 2013-3-28
Price : $89.00
Microsoft Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript 70-482 dump demo
7.You are writing a Windows Store app by using JavaScript. You need to authenticate a cloud server as a
source for Windows Push Notification Services (WNS).
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Register the app with the Dashboard.
B. Obtain the identity values and credentials for the app.
C. Create a code-signing certificate.
D. Create the HTTPS authentication request.
Answer: ABC
3.You are developing a Windows Store app. You configure the app to allow a free trial period. The app will
run during the trial period as though it were a fully licensed version. You will assign the time period when
you upload the app to the Windows Store. You need to prompt the user to purchase the full version of the
app when the trial period expires.
What should you do?
A. Call the getProductReceiptAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp object
and provide the app ¯ s pr oduct I Das an ar gu ment
B. Call the requestProductPurchaseAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp
object and provide the app s product ID as an argument.
C. Call the getAppReceiptAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp object.
D. Call the requestAppPurchaseAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp
object.
Answer: D
Candidates for this 70-482 exam should have a minimum of two to five years of experience developing HTML-based applications, including two or more years of experience developing applications for a touch-enabled interface/platform. Additionally, candidates should have the following:
Experience designing and developing the Process Lifetime Management (PLM) for Windows Store apps
Experience managing and securing application data for a Windows Store app solution
Experience planning and designing user interaction solutions based on requirements
Experience with the full development life cycle of Windows Store apps
Experience designing and developing asynchronous solutions
Experience creating apps that conform to the Windows Store app guidelines
Credit Toward Certification
Exam 70-482: Advanced Windows Store App Development using HTML5 and JavaScript: counts as credit toward the following certification(s):
MCSD: Windows Store Apps using HTML5
Note This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam, regardless of its format.
Taking advantage of the MCTS : SQL Server practice exam by Test4actual Microsoft MCTS : SQL Server, you can throw away the lengthy MCTS : SQL Server 70-482 books. The Test4actual website provides Microsoft MCTS : SQL Server 70-482 preparation materials with a guarantee of full success. You will pass the real Advanced Metro style App Development using HTML5 and JavaScript exam without any difficulty once you have participated the Test4actual MCTS : SQL Server 70-482 online training.
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Test4actual is ready to provide Microsoft candidates with Microsoft 70-482 exam questions training
materials which can be very much helpful for getting Microsoft certification,
which means that candidates. Microsoft can easily get access to the services of
Microsoft 70-482 for practice exam, which will assure them 100% Microsoft 70-482 pdf success rate.
Though Microsoft Advanced Metro style App Development using HTML5 and JavaScript
tests are not easy at all, but they do not make things complicated.
Microsoft Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript 70-482
Exam Number/Code : 70-482
Exam Name : Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript
One year free update
Once failed,100% refund
Free 70-482 Demo Download
Questions and Answers : 75Q&As
Update Time : 2013-3-28
Price : $89.00
Microsoft Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript 70-482 dump demo
7.You are writing a Windows Store app by using JavaScript. You need to authenticate a cloud server as a
source for Windows Push Notification Services (WNS).
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Register the app with the Dashboard.
B. Obtain the identity values and credentials for the app.
C. Create a code-signing certificate.
D. Create the HTTPS authentication request.
Answer: ABC
3.You are developing a Windows Store app. You configure the app to allow a free trial period. The app will
run during the trial period as though it were a fully licensed version. You will assign the time period when
you upload the app to the Windows Store. You need to prompt the user to purchase the full version of the
app when the trial period expires.
What should you do?
A. Call the getProductReceiptAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp object
and provide the app ¯ s pr oduct I Das an ar gu ment
B. Call the requestProductPurchaseAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp
object and provide the app s product ID as an argument.
C. Call the getAppReceiptAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp object.
D. Call the requestAppPurchaseAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp
object.
Answer: D
Candidates for this 70-482 exam should have a minimum of two to five years of experience developing HTML-based applications, including two or more years of experience developing applications for a touch-enabled interface/platform. Additionally, candidates should have the following:
Experience designing and developing the Process Lifetime Management (PLM) for Windows Store apps
Experience managing and securing application data for a Windows Store app solution
Experience planning and designing user interaction solutions based on requirements
Experience with the full development life cycle of Windows Store apps
Experience designing and developing asynchronous solutions
Experience creating apps that conform to the Windows Store app guidelines
Credit Toward Certification
Exam 70-482: Advanced Windows Store App Development using HTML5 and JavaScript: counts as credit toward the following certification(s):
MCSD: Windows Store Apps using HTML5
Note This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam, regardless of its format.
Taking advantage of the MCTS : SQL Server practice exam by Test4actual Microsoft MCTS : SQL Server, you can throw away the lengthy MCTS : SQL Server 70-482 books. The Test4actual website provides Microsoft MCTS : SQL Server 70-482 preparation materials with a guarantee of full success. You will pass the real Advanced Metro style App Development using HTML5 and JavaScript exam without any difficulty once you have participated the Test4actual MCTS : SQL Server 70-482 online training.
Microsoft Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript 70-482
Exam Number/Code : 70-482
Exam Name : Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript
One year free update
Once failed,100% refund
Free 70-482 Demo Download
Questions and Answers : 75Q&As
Update Time : 2013-3-28
Price : $89.00
Microsoft Advanced Windows Store App Dev using HTML5 and JavaScript 70-482 dump demo
7.You are writing a Windows Store app by using JavaScript. You need to authenticate a cloud server as a
source for Windows Push Notification Services (WNS).
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Register the app with the Dashboard.
B. Obtain the identity values and credentials for the app.
C. Create a code-signing certificate.
D. Create the HTTPS authentication request.
Answer: ABC
3.You are developing a Windows Store app. You configure the app to allow a free trial period. The app will
run during the trial period as though it were a fully licensed version. You will assign the time period when
you upload the app to the Windows Store. You need to prompt the user to purchase the full version of the
app when the trial period expires.
What should you do?
A. Call the getProductReceiptAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp object
and provide the app ¯ s pr oduct I Das an ar gu ment
B. Call the requestProductPurchaseAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp
object and provide the app s product ID as an argument.
C. Call the getAppReceiptAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp object.
D. Call the requestAppPurchaseAsync function of the Windows.ApplicationModel.Store.CurrentApp
object.
Answer: D
Candidates for this 70-482 exam should have a minimum of two to five years of experience developing HTML-based applications, including two or more years of experience developing applications for a touch-enabled interface/platform. Additionally, candidates should have the following:
Experience designing and developing the Process Lifetime Management (PLM) for Windows Store apps
Experience managing and securing application data for a Windows Store app solution
Experience planning and designing user interaction solutions based on requirements
Experience with the full development life cycle of Windows Store apps
Experience designing and developing asynchronous solutions
Experience creating apps that conform to the Windows Store app guidelines
Credit Toward Certification
Exam 70-482: Advanced Windows Store App Development using HTML5 and JavaScript: counts as credit toward the following certification(s):
MCSD: Windows Store Apps using HTML5
Note This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam, regardless of its format.
Taking advantage of the MCTS : SQL Server practice exam by Test4actual Microsoft MCTS : SQL Server, you can throw away the lengthy MCTS : SQL Server 70-482 books. The Test4actual website provides Microsoft MCTS : SQL Server 70-482 preparation materials with a guarantee of full success. You will pass the real Advanced Metro style App Development using HTML5 and JavaScript exam without any difficulty once you have participated the Test4actual MCTS : SQL Server 70-482 online training.
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Exam Number/Code : 000-377
Exam Name : IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Administration
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Questions and Answers : 112Q&As
Update Time : 2013-3-28
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IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Administration 000-377 IBM topics
Section 5 – Workload Management, Scalability, High Availability Failover (14%)
Federate nodes (including custom profiles).
Create clusters and cluster members.
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Create and configure Data Replication Service (DRS) replication domains.
Manage Web servers in a managed and unmanaged node.
Manage WebSphere messaging in a clustered environment.
Configure workload management via the web server plug-in
Section 6 – Maintenance, Performance Monitoring and Tuning (14%)
Manage application configurations (e.g., application bindings, HTTP session tuning, etc.).
Perform WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 backup, restore and configuration tasks.
Tune performance of WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 (e.g., JDBC data source, configure caching, queuing and thread pooling parameters, tune JVM heap size, etc.).
Use Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) / Request Metrics to gather information about resources and analyze results.
Develop and implement a maintenance application strategy using Update Installer and/or Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) (e.g., FixPacks, cumulative fixes and interim fixes.)
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18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible
management topology and the network deployment cell?
A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
ANSWER: A
19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of
the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A
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IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Administration 000-377 IBM topics
Section 5 – Workload Management, Scalability, High Availability Failover (14%)
Federate nodes (including custom profiles).
Create clusters and cluster members.
Configure session management (memory-to-memory, database persistence).
Create and configure Data Replication Service (DRS) replication domains.
Manage Web servers in a managed and unmanaged node.
Manage WebSphere messaging in a clustered environment.
Configure workload management via the web server plug-in
Section 6 – Maintenance, Performance Monitoring and Tuning (14%)
Manage application configurations (e.g., application bindings, HTTP session tuning, etc.).
Perform WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 backup, restore and configuration tasks.
Tune performance of WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 (e.g., JDBC data source, configure caching, queuing and thread pooling parameters, tune JVM heap size, etc.).
Use Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) / Request Metrics to gather information about resources and analyze results.
Develop and implement a maintenance application strategy using Update Installer and/or Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) (e.g., FixPacks, cumulative fixes and interim fixes.)
IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Administration 000-377 free dumps demo
18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible
management topology and the network deployment cell?
A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
ANSWER: A
19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of
the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A
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PK0-003 Exam Preparation Material
CompTIA PK0-003 Project+ covers the
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13.A project has just entered the execution phase. The deadline to respond to the RFP has expired.
Which of the following activities describes the NEXT action to take?
A. Develop a contract for each vendor.
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C. Determine the type of contract for the project.
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Answer: D
14.A project manager has just completed the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the project team.
Which of the following would be used during activity sequencing?
A. Precedence diagramming method
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Resource availability
D. Resource leveling technique
Answer: A
15.Fast tracking a schedule
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13.A project has just entered the execution phase. The deadline to respond to the RFP has expired.
Which of the following activities describes the NEXT action to take?
A. Develop a contract for each vendor.
B. Perform a make or buy analysis.
C. Determine the type of contract for the project.
D. Evaluate and select a seller response.
Answer: D
14.A project manager has just completed the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the project team.
Which of the following would be used during activity sequencing?
A. Precedence diagramming method
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Resource availability
D. Resource leveling technique
Answer: A
15.Fast tracking a schedule
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2013年4月16日星期二
Cisco 640-461 training
Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461
Exam Number/Code : 640-461
Exam Name : Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications
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Questions and Answers : 119Q&As
Update Time : 2013-3-28
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Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461 topcis
Provision end users and associated devices
Describe user creation options for Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Create or modify user accounts for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Create or modify user accounts for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI
Create or modify endpoints for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Create or modify endpoints for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI
Describe how calling privileges function and how calling privileges impact system features
Create or modify directory numbers
Enable user features and related calling privileges for extension mobility, call coverage, intercom, native presence, and unified mobility remote destination configuration
Enable end users for Cisco Unified Presence
Verify user features are operational
Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461 exam pdf demo
7.Which issue does CAS signaling on a T1 circuit create?
A. Signaling bits are subtracted from each frame, which causes a significant loss of voice quality.
B. An extra signaling bit is added to the sixth frame to carry signaling information.
C. A signaling bit is subtracted from every sixth frame to carry signaling information.
D. Signaling bits are added to the signaling stream to create extended super frames.
Answer: C
8.How does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express match an outbound VoIP dial peer?
A. Outbound dial-peer matching uses the entire string of digits en bloc to match the dial peer with the
longest match.
B. Outbound dial-peer matching is completed on a digit-by-digit basis.
C. It matches outbound dial peers by placing all the dial peers into a hunt group and then uses the entire
dialed number en bloc to match the first dial peer.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express creates a hunt group that contains all the configured
dial peers and then applies the dial digits in a digit-by-digit manner to match a dial peer.
Answer: A
The Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications Administration (ICOMM v8.0) 640-461 exam is associated with the CCNA Voice certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the architecture, components, functionalities, and features of Cisco Unified Communications solutions. It also tests the knowledge needed to perform tasks such as system monitoring, moves, additions and changes on Cisco Unified Communications Manager, Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, Cisco Unity Connection, and Cisco Unified Presence. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications Administration (ICOMM v8.0) 640-461 course.
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Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461 topcis
Provision end users and associated devices
Describe user creation options for Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
Create or modify user accounts for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Create or modify user accounts for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI
Create or modify endpoints for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Create or modify endpoints for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI
Describe how calling privileges function and how calling privileges impact system features
Create or modify directory numbers
Enable user features and related calling privileges for extension mobility, call coverage, intercom, native presence, and unified mobility remote destination configuration
Enable end users for Cisco Unified Presence
Verify user features are operational
Cisco Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications 640-461 exam pdf demo
7.Which issue does CAS signaling on a T1 circuit create?
A. Signaling bits are subtracted from each frame, which causes a significant loss of voice quality.
B. An extra signaling bit is added to the sixth frame to carry signaling information.
C. A signaling bit is subtracted from every sixth frame to carry signaling information.
D. Signaling bits are added to the signaling stream to create extended super frames.
Answer: C
8.How does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express match an outbound VoIP dial peer?
A. Outbound dial-peer matching uses the entire string of digits en bloc to match the dial peer with the
longest match.
B. Outbound dial-peer matching is completed on a digit-by-digit basis.
C. It matches outbound dial peers by placing all the dial peers into a hunt group and then uses the entire
dialed number en bloc to match the first dial peer.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express creates a hunt group that contains all the configured
dial peers and then applies the dial digits in a digit-by-digit manner to match a dial peer.
Answer: A
The Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications Administration (ICOMM v8.0) 640-461 exam is associated with the CCNA Voice certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of the architecture, components, functionalities, and features of Cisco Unified Communications solutions. It also tests the knowledge needed to perform tasks such as system monitoring, moves, additions and changes on Cisco Unified Communications Manager, Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, Cisco Unity Connection, and Cisco Unified Presence. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Introducing Cisco Voice and Unified Communications Administration (ICOMM v8.0) 640-461 course.
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1z0-042 questions and answers
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oracle database 10g:administration i 1z0-042 Oracle exam topics
Managing the Oracle Instance
Use Enterprise Manager
Use SQL*Plus and iSQL*Plus to access the Oracle Database
Modify database initialization parameters
Describe the stages of database startup
Describe the database shutdown options
View the database alert log
Use dynamic performance views
Managing Database Storage Structures
Describe how table row data is stored in blocks
Define the purpose of tablespaces and data files
Explain space management in tablespaces
Create tablespaces
Manage tablespaces: alter, drop, take offline, put online, add data files, make read-only or read-write, generate DDL
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Explain key features and benefits of ASM
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11.Which three statements are true regarding the fine-grained auditing (FGA)? (Choose three.)
A. FGA is possible on SELECT statements only.
B. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the AUD_LOG$ table.
C. FGA includes the SQL statement used by the user as part of the audit event entry.
D. FGA enables a SQL predicate to define when to audit an event.
E. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the FGA_LOG$ table.
F. FGA audits DELETE statements only when audit columns are specified.
Answer: CDE
12.Your database instance is started using the server parameter file (SPFILE). Control files are
multiplexed and stored on different disks. Because of a disk failure, you lost one of these control files. You
replaced the damaged disk. What is the correct sequence of steps that you would follow to recover the
control file?
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2. Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3. Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4. Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5. Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.
6. Open the database.
A. 2,4,3,4,5
B. 5,2,3,4
C. 4,5,6,2,3
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Answer: D
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oracle database 10g:administration i 1z0-042 Oracle exam topics
Managing the Oracle Instance
Use Enterprise Manager
Use SQL*Plus and iSQL*Plus to access the Oracle Database
Modify database initialization parameters
Describe the stages of database startup
Describe the database shutdown options
View the database alert log
Use dynamic performance views
Managing Database Storage Structures
Describe how table row data is stored in blocks
Define the purpose of tablespaces and data files
Explain space management in tablespaces
Create tablespaces
Manage tablespaces: alter, drop, take offline, put online, add data files, make read-only or read-write, generate DDL
Obtain tablespace information
Explain key features and benefits of ASM
oracle database 10g:administration i 1z0-042 dumps demo
11.Which three statements are true regarding the fine-grained auditing (FGA)? (Choose three.)
A. FGA is possible on SELECT statements only.
B. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the AUD_LOG$ table.
C. FGA includes the SQL statement used by the user as part of the audit event entry.
D. FGA enables a SQL predicate to define when to audit an event.
E. The audit trail for FGA is stored in the FGA_LOG$ table.
F. FGA audits DELETE statements only when audit columns are specified.
Answer: CDE
12.Your database instance is started using the server parameter file (SPFILE). Control files are
multiplexed and stored on different disks. Because of a disk failure, you lost one of these control files. You
replaced the damaged disk. What is the correct sequence of steps that you would follow to recover the
control file?
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2. Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3. Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4. Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5. Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.
6. Open the database.
A. 2,4,3,4,5
B. 5,2,3,4
C. 4,5,6,2,3
D. 1,2,4,3,5
Answer: D
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IBM 000-926 Study Guide
IBM Certified Deployment Professional-Maximo V6 ITSM 000-926
Exam Number/Code : 000-926
Exam Name : IBM Certified Deployment Professional-Maximo V6 ITSM
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A. One organization with two sites
B. Two organizations with one site each
C. An item set and one organization with two sites
D. An item set and two organizations with one site each
Answer: D
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6. The Gander Company wants to share item data across two business units in different countries. Each
business unit has a different financial process.
What organization and site structure is recommended?
A. One organization with two sites
B. Two organizations with one site each
C. An item set and one organization with two sites
D. An item set and two organizations with one site each
Answer: D
7. Gander Lumber Company needs to identify and notify the responsible person when leases for
computers are about to expire. What is used to achieve this client requirement?
A. Escalation
B. Email Listener
C. Purchase Order
D. Service License Agreement (SLA)
Answer: A
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13.A Power 720 currently has its firmware update policy set to Os Managed.
Which statement is correct?
A. Server firmware updates will always be disruptive.
B. IPLing from the A side of any partition will activate the new server firmware.
C. Only the Service partition needs PTEs to be installed for the new server firmware to be immediately
activated.
D. Only the Managing partition needs PTF5 to be installed for the new server firmware to be temporarily
activated.
Answer: B
14.A customer is upgrading an HMC to a new release using Recovery DVD5 for the new release level.
Which action must be completed before performing the upgrade from DVD process?
A. Run the HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data ¯ to DVD.
B. Run the HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data ¯ to HMC disk.
C. Run the HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data ¯ to NFS server.
D. Run the HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data ¯ to the administrator ¯s PC.
Answer: B
IBM i 7.1 Administration 000-129 topics
Recovery Tasks (10%)
Restore various objects, including different libraries, object ownership changes, journal relationships, LF/PF relationships, and new “position” parameter for fast tape restore.
Solve typical problems encountered during various restore operations.
Recover the system using LIC media, including slipping LIC and D-mode IPL, alternate IPL devices, and alternate Install devices.
Restore IFS objects.
Explain how to resume a failed restore operation.
Define system values that are critical to restore process, especially when performing a full system restore.
Restore security and private authorities
Work Management (11%)
Create and manage subsystems, including classes, routing entries, job queues and job queue entries.
Create and manage job descriptions, including assigning priorities, job queues, classes, library lists.
Manage jobs, including scheduled jobs, prestart jobs, changing the characteristics of running jobs, and ending jobs.
Use the native Job Scheduler to automate tasks.
Use the output presented by the Work with Active Jobs, Work with System Activity, and Work with System Status functions to perform daily performance tuning tasks.
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13.A Power 720 currently has its firmware update policy set to Os Managed.
Which statement is correct?
A. Server firmware updates will always be disruptive.
B. IPLing from the A side of any partition will activate the new server firmware.
C. Only the Service partition needs PTEs to be installed for the new server firmware to be immediately
activated.
D. Only the Managing partition needs PTF5 to be installed for the new server firmware to be temporarily
activated.
Answer: B
14.A customer is upgrading an HMC to a new release using Recovery DVD5 for the new release level.
Which action must be completed before performing the upgrade from DVD process?
A. Run the HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data ¯ to DVD.
B. Run the HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data ¯ to HMC disk.
C. Run the HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data ¯ to NFS server.
D. Run the HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data ¯ to the administrator ¯s PC.
Answer: B
IBM i 7.1 Administration 000-129 topics
Recovery Tasks (10%)
Restore various objects, including different libraries, object ownership changes, journal relationships, LF/PF relationships, and new “position” parameter for fast tape restore.
Solve typical problems encountered during various restore operations.
Recover the system using LIC media, including slipping LIC and D-mode IPL, alternate IPL devices, and alternate Install devices.
Restore IFS objects.
Explain how to resume a failed restore operation.
Define system values that are critical to restore process, especially when performing a full system restore.
Restore security and private authorities
Work Management (11%)
Create and manage subsystems, including classes, routing entries, job queues and job queue entries.
Create and manage job descriptions, including assigning priorities, job queues, classes, library lists.
Manage jobs, including scheduled jobs, prestart jobs, changing the characteristics of running jobs, and ending jobs.
Use the native Job Scheduler to automate tasks.
Use the output presented by the Work with Active Jobs, Work with System Activity, and Work with System Status functions to perform daily performance tuning tasks.
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7. Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources,
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A. Choose User home folders.
B. Choose Shared Library folder.
C. Choose Shared Applications folder.
D. Choose Custom mount path and enter ~/Library/Fonts for the path.
Answer: B
8. What is the maximum number of replicas of one Open Directory master that can be used in a Mac OS
X Server v10.5 Open Directory infrastructure?
A. 31
B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 1056
Answer: E
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7. Your company has a set of site-licensed fonts in a folder named Fonts, on the share point, Resources,
on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. You are configuring the Resources share point so that these
fonts will be automatically accessible by all your Mac OS X users. After you have enabled the Automount
option for the Resources share point, how should you configure the share point in the automount
configuration sheet?
A. Choose User home folders.
B. Choose Shared Library folder.
C. Choose Shared Applications folder.
D. Choose Custom mount path and enter ~/Library/Fonts for the path.
Answer: B
8. What is the maximum number of replicas of one Open Directory master that can be used in a Mac OS
X Server v10.5 Open Directory infrastructure?
A. 31
B. 64
C. 256
D. 1024
E. 1056
Answer: E
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Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist, SEC (JNCIS-SEC) JN0-332 topics :IPsec VPNs
Describe the concepts, benefits and operation of IPsec VPNs
Secure VPN characteristics and components
IPsec tunnel establishment
IPsec traffic processing
Junos OS IPsec implementation options
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot IPsec VPNs
IPsec VPN configuration steps
Monitoring and troubleshooting
Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist, SEC (JNCIS-SEC) JN0-332
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10.You want to allow your device to establish OSPF adjacencies with a neighboring device connected to
interface ge-0/0/3.0. Interface ge-0/0/3.0 is a member of the HR zone.Under which configuration
hierarchy must you permit OSPF traffic?
A. [edit security policies from-zone HR to-zone HR]
B. [edit security zones functional-zone management protocols]
C. [edit security zones protocol-zone HR host-inbound-traffic]
D. [edit security zones security-zone HR host-inbound-traffic protocols]
Answer: D
11.Which three statements are true regarding IDP? (Choose three.)
A. IDP cannot be used in conjunction with other Junos security features such as SCREEN options, zones,
and security policy.
B. IDP inspects traffic up to the Application Layer.
C. IDP searches the data stream for specific attack patterns.
D. IDP inspects traffic up to the Presentation Layer.
E. IDP can drop packets, close sessions, prevent future sessions, and log attacks for review by network
administrators when an attack is detected.
Answer: B,C,E
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Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist, SEC (JNCIS-SEC) JN0-332 topics :IPsec VPNs
Describe the concepts, benefits and operation of IPsec VPNs
Secure VPN characteristics and components
IPsec tunnel establishment
IPsec traffic processing
Junos OS IPsec implementation options
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot IPsec VPNs
IPsec VPN configuration steps
Monitoring and troubleshooting
Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist, SEC (JNCIS-SEC) JN0-332
Exam Number/Code : JN0-332
Exam Name : Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist, SEC (JNCIS-SEC)
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10.You want to allow your device to establish OSPF adjacencies with a neighboring device connected to
interface ge-0/0/3.0. Interface ge-0/0/3.0 is a member of the HR zone.Under which configuration
hierarchy must you permit OSPF traffic?
A. [edit security policies from-zone HR to-zone HR]
B. [edit security zones functional-zone management protocols]
C. [edit security zones protocol-zone HR host-inbound-traffic]
D. [edit security zones security-zone HR host-inbound-traffic protocols]
Answer: D
11.Which three statements are true regarding IDP? (Choose three.)
A. IDP cannot be used in conjunction with other Junos security features such as SCREEN options, zones,
and security policy.
B. IDP inspects traffic up to the Application Layer.
C. IDP searches the data stream for specific attack patterns.
D. IDP inspects traffic up to the Presentation Layer.
E. IDP can drop packets, close sessions, prevent future sessions, and log attacks for review by network
administrators when an attack is detected.
Answer: B,C,E
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Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 640-816 exam topics
Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network
Describe the purpose and types of access control lists
Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements
Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router
Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment
Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues
Explain the basic operation of NAT
Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI
Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 640-816 free dumps
13.The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6.
What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
A. no broadcast
B. change of source address in the IPv6 header
C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
D. Telnet access does not require a password
E. autoconfiguration
F. NAT
Answer: AE
14.The network technician is planning to use the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask on the network.
Which three valid IP addresses can the technician use for the hosts?
(Choose three.)
A. 172.22.243.127
B. 172.22.243.190
C. 172.22.243.191
D. 192.168.1.160
E. 10.17.64.34
F. 10.16.33.98
Answer: BEF
The 640-816 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
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Exam Number/Code : 640-816
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Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 640-816 exam topics
Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network
Describe the purpose and types of access control lists
Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements
Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router
Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment
Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues
Explain the basic operation of NAT
Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI
Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 640-816 free dumps
13.The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6.
What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
A. no broadcast
B. change of source address in the IPv6 header
C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
D. Telnet access does not require a password
E. autoconfiguration
F. NAT
Answer: AE
14.The network technician is planning to use the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask on the network.
Which three valid IP addresses can the technician use for the hosts?
(Choose three.)
A. 172.22.243.127
B. 172.22.243.190
C. 172.22.243.191
D. 192.168.1.160
E. 10.17.64.34
F. 10.16.33.98
Answer: BEF
The 640-816 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
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2013年4月14日星期日
IBM 000-956 pdf training materials
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15.In the Storwize V7000 a multi-tiered storage pool is used to ___________.
A. enable automatic migration of extents between disk tiers
B. allow different extent sizes in the same MDisk
C. allow SAS and nearline SAS drives in the same MDisk
D. enable multiple RAID types
Answer: A
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15.In the Storwize V7000 a multi-tiered storage pool is used to ___________.
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B. allow different extent sizes in the same MDisk
C. allow SAS and nearline SAS drives in the same MDisk
D. enable multiple RAID types
Answer: A
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